Product FAQ

 

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Which BioRobot EZ1 instruments can be upgraded to become CE-IVDcompliant?
FAQ ID -1560
Which barcodes on sample tubes are accepted by the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID - 3598
Which Anti-His Antibody is the most sensitive for my protein of interest?
FAQ ID -172
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 MD software?
FAQ ID -2866
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 ID software version 1.0?
FAQ ID -2845
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
Where should I add a dye-label modification on the siRNA?
FAQ ID -648
Where can I order the Streptavidin Sepharose beads for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2850
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3019
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3032
Where can I find the serial number on QIAGEN's BioRobots?
FAQ ID -1064
Where can I find the public Smith-Waterman homology search tool that you refer to on your siRNA online design page?
FAQ ID -562
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube Connect accessories such as shaker rack plugs, rack labeling strips, reagent bottle racks, 30 ml reagent bottles, rotor-adapter holder, rotor adapters, sample tubes CB, sample tubes RB and spin-column adapter rings?
FAQ ID - 141505
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube accessories such as Shaker Rack plugs, Rack labeling strips, Reagent bottle rack, 30mL Reagent bottles, Rotor Adapter holder, Rotor adapters, Sample tubes CB, Sample tubes RB and Spin column adapter rings?
FAQ ID -3054
Where can I find the gene list for a specific RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID - 3684
Where can I find the composition tables for solutions used in individual Crystallization Screening Suites?
FAQ ID -1124
Where can I find the certificate of calibration for the Rotor-Disc OTV Kit (catalog number 981400)?
FAQ ID - 3695
Where can I find QIAGEN products for a specific gene or gene product?
FAQ ID -803
Where can I find information about the worktable setup on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1243
Where can I find info on compatible reporter dyes for use in real-time multiplex PCR using the QuantiTect Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -719
Where can I find general information about RT-PCR and PCR arrays such as information about sample preparation, reverse transcription, quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, and PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2446
Where can I find explanations to the warning given by the PyroMark software after run data analysis?
FAQ ID -2874
Where can I find background information and literature on Whole Genome Amplification with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -1690
Where can I find additional information for PreAnalytiX PAXgene products?
FAQ ID - 3515
Where can I find a protocol for cleanup of already purified plasmid DNA?
FAQ ID -1031
Where can I find a copy of the report files generated by running accessory protocols "Dilutor Delivery (monthly)" and "High-Speed Pipetting Sytem (monthly)" on my BioRobot 9604?
FAQ ID -766
Where can I find a copy of the report file generated by running 'Maintenance Protocol I' on my BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -806
Where can I find a copy of the .kpf file for a BioSprint protocol?
FAQ ID -3073
Where can I download the protocol for the KingFisher Flex?
3798
Where can I access Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) online for detailed information on the reagents for each respective kit?
FAQ ID -3085
Where are the somatic mutations published?
FAQ ID -2429
When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
When using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what should the fluorescent label of the probe be for the customer-defined assay to detect the pathogen?
FAQ ID -2594
When using QIAzol Lysis Reagent for RNA extraction, I see a pinkish colored aqueous phase! Is it OK?
FAQ ID -534
When using HiPerFect HTS Reagent is it necessary to optimize amount of siRNA and transfection reagent?
FAQ ID -2556
When should the Normalization protocol be used?
FAQ ID -1155
When should I use the ‘Standard’ vs. the ‘Fast’ protocol for the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit
FAQ ID - 3948
When should I use the standard vs. the fast protocol for the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3941
When should I use Phoenix Hot Start Taq GC reaction Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3903
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3910
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3923
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
When should carrier be used with the QIAamp DNA Mini or the DNeasy Blood & Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -100
When should an intensity calibration be re-performed on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1825
When searching for a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest, why do I only find the assay for human but not for rat?
FAQ ID -1139
When preparing plasma with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA tubes, cat. # 768115, do you recommend that the first centrifugation step should be done with the brakes on or off?
FAQ ID - 3690
When performing the Internal Control assay for the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what channel or filter can be used to detect MAX?
FAQ ID -2597
When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3576
When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3575
When negative results are generated using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits, do I rerun them?
FAQ ID -2294
When isolating DNA from plant cells using CTAB, should MaXtract Low or High Density be used?
FAQ ID -1308
When is chloramphenicol amplification of plasmids performed?
FAQ ID -3
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
When delivering liquid to a 96-well plate using the MultiFlow Dispenser Head on my BioRobot , one or more rows in the plate contains less liquid per well than specified by the protocol. What is going wrong?
FAQ ID -653
When and how often do I need a new VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3785
What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
What would happen if I used home-made PCR master mixes or master mixes from other manufacturers with the RT² products?
FAQ ID -2715
What will happen, if the normalized DNA for the SeqTarget System is eluted with Buffer EB instead of EB2?
FAQ ID -2242
What water should I use to prepare the buffer concentrates?
FAQ ID - 3986

What volume of bacterial culture can be processed using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1357
What voltage should be used to run my agarose gel with the GelPilot Agarose?
FAQ ID -2261
What vector do you recommend as template for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1224
What vacuum pressure should be applied using the QIAvac 24 Plus for the QIAamp DSP Virus Kit and Blood Mini Kit Protocols?
FAQ ID -1033
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2085
What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the QIAquant?
153922
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV RT RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3961
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase-H-?
FAQ ID - 3839
What types of materials from environmental samples could interfere with WGA?
FAQ ID -666
What type of Sequencing Services does QIAGEN offer?
FAQ ID -781
What type of samples can I use for the KRAS PCR and EGFR kits?
FAQ ID -2293
What type of promoter should my template have for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1223
What type of magnet do you recommend for handling the magnetic beads in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol?
FAQ ID -1193
What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
What technologies are used by the therascreen PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2287
What technologies are used by the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2286
What starting material can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit?
FAQ ID -1184
What starting amount of RNA purified using an miRNeasy Kit should be used with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1597
What specification do you have for the high-speed shaker system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3526
What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
What species are QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates offered for?
FAQ ID -2110
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3942
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3954
What size of DNA can be expected?
153897
What size of DNA can be expected?
3759
What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
What size bead should I use for tougher samples with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2554
What single cell isolation methods are recommended for use with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3582
What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
What should I use as a standard for absolute quantification in real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1085
What should I do if stabilized saliva samples are very heterogenous?
3820
What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
What should I do if cryoprecipitates form while thawing a frozen plasma sample?
FAQ ID - 3646
What should I avoid before sample collection?
3813
What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
What sequencing primers can I use with the pDrive cloning vector of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -292
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
What sample volumes can be used with the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2156
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
What sample volumes can be processed with the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kits?
FAQ ID -2037
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
What sample source do you support?
FAQ ID - 143066
What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
What real-time PCR cyclers can the therascreen EGFR PCR Kit be used with?
FAQ ID -2310
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
What real time cyclers can be used with the therascreen KRAS PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2305
What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
What possible reasons result in a sensitivity lower than that given in the artus® user handbook?
FAQ ID -1396
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2387
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
What pathogens can be detected with the artus HSV/2 RG PCR Kits, and what is the LOD?
-1
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
What must I do if error code 29 is displayed in the LCD?
FAQ ID -1562
What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID - 143076
What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
What is the throughput of the QIAsymphony when using the DSP AXpH protocol?
FAQ ID -2271
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3557

What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143063
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3565

What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987

What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
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