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Why is carrier RNA used during the isolation of gDNA from microdissected samples with the QIAamp DNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -473
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Why is an ice-incubation step included during reaction set-up when following the QuantiTect RT-PCR but not the QuantiTect PCR protocol.
FAQ ID -283
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Why is a blood collection set required to collect blood into the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3628
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Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
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Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for Rotor-Gene SYBR Green Kits?
FAQ ID -2122
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Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1450
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Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
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Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
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Why had my RT² SYBR Green Mastermix been working well in the past, but now does not seem to be?
FAQ ID -2717
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Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
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Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
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Why does the SeqTarget Prep Protocol require a 2-step procedure?
FAQ ID -2238
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Why does the QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest have only one version number?
FAQ ID -1134
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Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
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Why does the QIAamp DNA Mini Tissue Protocol require both ATL and AL buffer, while the Blood Protocol only uses AL?
FAQ ID -633
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Why does the miScript Target Protector not induce the degradation process?
FAQ ID -2263
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Why does the fluorescence signal drop sharply at the beginning of an artus® PCR run?
FAQ ID -1498
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Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
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Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
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Why does the copy function not apply relative to migration time and normalized area values after loading the DNA size marker table and adding the alignment marker peaks on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1832
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Why does the connection test fail?
FAQ ID - 141522
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Why does the Allprep DNA/RNA 96 Kit use Buffer RLT, whereas the AllPrep DNA/RNA Mini Kit uses Buffer RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1999
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Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2390
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Why does TA/UA cloning work with your proofreading HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1053
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Why does my realtime PCR assay quality decrease over time?
FAQ ID -589
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Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
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Why does my PCR product show up later when comparing the QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits with Roche kits using the same annealing temperature?
FAQ ID -1083
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Why does my isolated RNA have a low OD 260/280 ratio?
FAQ ID -97
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Why does my DNA sample float out of the slot when loading it onto an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -205
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Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
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Why do you recommend using Triton X for the purification of 6xHis-tagged protein?
-100
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Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
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Why do the amplification curves generated with ABI PRISM® 7000 SDS instrument look rather zigzag-shaped when compared to results generated with the ABI PRISM® 7700 SDS instrument?
FAQ ID -1522
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Why do replicates in real-time PCR have different plateau heights?
FAQ ID -539
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Why do QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits require such a high primer concentration?
FAQ ID -1443
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Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
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Why do pQE-T7 vectors of the QIAgenes E. coli system have an additional UAG amber stop codon?
FAQ ID -2043
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Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
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Why do melting temperatures differ between PCR fragments amplified with QIAGEN's QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits and Roche Kits?
FAQ ID -1084
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Why do I sometimes get light blue colonies when using the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -603
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Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
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Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
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Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3745
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Why do I need to identify my real-time instrument model when placing my order for RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2713
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Why do I need normalization using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2198
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Why do I have wavy DNA bands on my agarose gel?
FAQ ID -2260
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Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
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Why do I have to add beta-mercaptoethanol (beta-ME) to lysis Buffer RLT of the RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -101
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Why do I get smeared PCR products?
FAQ ID -87
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Why do I get genomic DNA contamination in my plasmid prep?
FAQ ID -353
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Why do I get different results for the loci SE33 if I analyze the same sample using the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit or Investigator Triplex AFS QS Kit?
FAQ ID -2401
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Why do I get amplification in a negative control DNA tube using the REPLI-g Kit for WGA?
FAQ ID -675
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Why do casework-sample protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit start with different lysate volumes (200 µl, 500 µl, or 1000 µl)?
FAQ ID -2035
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Why did you choose ORF1a+ORF1b and ORF3a+ORF7a?
FAQ ID - 3893
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Why did you choose MAPK1 as a positive control in the QIAGEN RNAi Human/Mouse Control Kit?
FAQ ID -604
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Why did we not choose commonly used genes such as the S gene, E gene, or RdRP?
FAQ ID - 3892
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Why did the real-time PCR yield Ct values < 12?
FAQ ID -2727
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Why can’t I see my QIAcube Connect instrument in the QIAcube Connect App?
FAQ ID - 1414518
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Why can't I find the DNA methylation qPCR Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2743
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Why can I not find the QuantiTect Primer Assay in GeneGlobe that I had previously ordered from QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -1138
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Why can I not find the Q-Base device in the device list during the first installation?
FAQ ID - 141516
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Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3022
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Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3603
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Why are there various different QuantiTect Primer Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -1133
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Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -2366
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Why are the RT² qPCR Primer Assays not designed to cross exon-intron junctions or boundaries?
FAQ ID -2710
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Why are the QuantiTect and QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits limited to triplex real-time PCR on some cyclers?
FAQ ID -715
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Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -2365
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Why are the fluorescence intensities of the HSV detection markedly lower than those of the HSV-1 detection using the artus® HSV 1/2 LC PCR Kit?
-2
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Why are the denaturation and annealing/extension times for QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits much shorter than those for QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2147
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Why are the centrifugation speeds for the QIAamp DNA Mini kit at 6000 x g? Can I spin at full speed?
FAQ ID -474
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Why are some of my samples outside of the cluster using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2204
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Why are some of my RNAprotect-stabilized samples frozen at 0ºC while others are not?
FAQ ID -758
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Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kits?
FAQ ID -533
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Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after addition of chloroform to the QIAzol lysates in following kits: RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini/Midi kits, RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini kit, RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kit, RNeasy 96 Universal Tissue kit, miRNeasy Mini kit, miRNeasy Micro kit, miRNeasy 96 kit and miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
FAQ ID -2345
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Why are not all applications/kits/protocol files visible in the run setup (QIAcube Connect App)?
FAQ ID - 1414520
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Why are my realtime PCR amplification plots hook-shaped?
FAQ ID -587
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Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
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Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
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Why are my DV200 values of my RNA sample so low?
FAQ ID - 3957
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Why are most of my samples outside of the cluster in supervised mode using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2205
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Why and when is it necessary to use carrier DNA/RNA in the extraction procedure?
FAQ ID -1489
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Who can help in case of issues with the third party instrument?
3799
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Who can help if it is not clear if issues are caused by the third party instrument or by the chemistry?
3802
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Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA/miRNA Tissue/Cells Kit?
FAQ ID - 3851
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Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3940
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Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3947
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Which variants of the EasyXtal 15-well tool are available?
FAQ ID -2221
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Which types of collection tubes should preferentially be used for blood samples?
FAQ ID -1496
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Which types and amounts of sample material can be processed for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1937
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Which tubes are recommended for the QIAsymphony sample rack
FAQ ID - 3653
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Which transfection reagent is recommended for transfection of the miScript Target Protectors?
FAQ ID -2252
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Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2392
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Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator IDplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2403
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Which software updates are included in a Premium Cover Agreement for my QIAGEN Instrument?
FAQ ID -1336
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3018
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3031
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye have to be adjusted before running the spectral calibration on the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2649
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Which SARS-CoV-2 targets can the SARS-CoV-2 Neo Kit detect?
FAQ ID - 3881
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Which sample volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3700
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Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2154
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Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
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Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
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Which sample materials can be tested using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2209
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Which sample materials are validated within the CE mark for the artus HSV/2 RG PCR
-1
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Which sample material is validated within the CE mark for artus VZV RG PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2231
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Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2312
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Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
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Which resin is used in the QIAexpress Ni-NTA Fast Start Columns?
FAQ ID -836
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Which regions are covered by the GR DNAseq V2 Panels (#181900)?
FAQ ID - 3688
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Which real-time PCR kits are recommended downstream of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1592
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Which real-time PCR files should customers forward when they want their data to be re-analyzed by artus® technical support?
FAQ ID -1508
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Which real-time PCR cyclers can be used with the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2208
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Which QuantiTect Primer Assay should I choose for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1135
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Which Qproteome or Protein Fractionation Kits from QIAGEN are compatible with tissue samples?
FAQ ID -755
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Which qPCR instrument should I use with your RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2714
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Which QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kit size should be used for each protocol?
FAQ ID -2038
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Which QIAGEN plasmid preparation kits will contain LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -865
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Which QIAGEN kit do you recommend for purifying plasmid DNA suitable for transfection of sensitive cells?
FAQ ID -1092
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Which QIAGEN DNA extraction kits are compatible with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3821
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Which QIAcube Connect standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
FAQ ID - 141508
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Which PyroMark Gold Q96 Reagent should be used for which instrument and application?
FAQ ID -2836
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Which purity grade is recommended for pyrosequencing primers?
FAQ ID -2832
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Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2386
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Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2380
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Which protocol line should I use to process plasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3654
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Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2361
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Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
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Which primers can I use for sequencing pQE-expression vector constructs?
FAQ ID -343
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Which positive control should I use?
FAQ ID - 3896
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Which plate formats are offered for QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2106
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Which plasma volumes can I process with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3648
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Which pathogens can be detected using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2206
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Which parts are exchanged during a Preventive Maintenance visit for my QIAGEN BioRobot?
FAQ ID -1334
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Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
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Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
FAQ ID - 3340
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Which nucleotide analogs can be used with TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1741
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Which network settings are supported by the QIAcube Connect and Q-Base?
FAQ ID - 141517
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Which mode should I use in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software, supervised or unsupervised?
FAQ ID -2202
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Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
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