Product FAQ

 

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Sorted alphabetically
What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
What real-time PCR cyclers can the therascreen EGFR PCR Kit be used with?
FAQ ID -2310
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
What real time cyclers can be used with the therascreen KRAS PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2305
What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
What possible reasons result in a sensitivity lower than that given in the artus® user handbook?
FAQ ID -1396
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2387
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
What pathogens can be detected with the artus HSV/2 RG PCR Kits, and what is the LOD?
-1
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
What must I do if error code 29 is displayed in the LCD?
FAQ ID -1562
What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID - 143076
What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
What is the throughput of the QIAsymphony when using the DSP AXpH protocol?
FAQ ID -2271
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3557

What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143063
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3565

What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the purpose of the reference channel in QIAcuity?
3776
What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987

What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
What is the meaning of the CT value?
FAQ ID -1525
What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3014
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3027
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2645
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
What is the intended use of the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2273
What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
What is the input volume for QIAcuity Nanoplate well?
3782
What is the input sample volume when using the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2272
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3383
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3382
What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
What is the elution volume for all CE-marked artus QS-Rotor-Gene Q assays?
FAQ ID -2432
What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID - 143064 
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
What is the difference between the Influenza Master and the Influenza H1 Master of the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2207
What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2395
What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3016
What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the correct matrix to use with ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2647
What is the correct matrix and filter/settings to be used on the Investigator ID plex kit?
FAQ ID -2405
What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984

What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?
FAQ ID -1361
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1356
What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
What is the composition of buffer QN?
FAQ ID -414
What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
What is the composition of Buffer PE?
FAQ ID -1691
What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
What is the composition of Buffer P2?
FAQ ID -203
What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
What is the composition of buffer OL2?
FAQ ID -424
What is the composition of buffer OEB?
FAQ ID -420
What is the composition of buffer OCL?
FAQ ID -422
What is the composition of buffer OCD?
FAQ ID -423
What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
What is the composition of Buffer FRN?
FAQ ID -2802
What is the composition of Buffer FG3?
FAQ ID -356
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
What is the composition of Buffer EB?
FAQ ID -199
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer APP?
FAQ ID -2804
What is the composition of Buffer APL?
FAQ ID -2803
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?
FAQ ID -475
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -782
What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube
FAQ ID - 3631
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?
FAQ ID -430
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?
FAQ ID -427
What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?
FAQ ID -1603
What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?
FAQ ID -601
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
What is the batch size of the QIASymphony Rotor-Gene Q and how many PCR´s can be processed per assay module run?
FAQ ID -2433
What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?
FAQ ID -740
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2534
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3045
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?
FAQ ID -635
What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?
FAQ ID - 3846
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3924
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3911
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3912
What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3904
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3578
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2856
What is the amount of standard for the different kit?
FAQ ID - 3936
What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?
153954
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2064
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2059
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?
FAQ ID -2010
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3372
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3523
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?
FAQ ID -320
What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?
FAQ ID -654
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits?
FAQ ID -1554
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
What is MOI?
FAQ ID -2768
What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment?
FAQ ID -2179
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?
FAQ ID -2815
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit?
FAQ ID -2511
What is in the additive in the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3810
What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2029
What is a quenched FRET assay?
FAQ ID -542
What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -1141
What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?
FAQ ID -631
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What is a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2249
What is a miScript Precursor Assay?
FAQ ID -2214
What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay?
FAQ ID -476
What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2005
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What instrument can I use for the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2311
What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format?
FAQ ID -1463
What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1363
What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1365
What if only one heater shaker is available?
FAQ ID - 143764
What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?
FAQ ID -528
What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template?
FAQ ID -2009
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed?
FAQ ID -514
What happens if I accidentally unscrew the funnel before saliva collection is completed?
3808
What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3025
What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools?
FAQ ID -2219
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software?
FAQ ID -2700
What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes?
FAQ ID -1312
What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?
FAQ ID -1154
What extraction procedure should I use for the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2313
What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize?
FAQ ID -170
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2889
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID - 3985

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID -1751
What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2288
What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3506
What downstream applications can I use the eluates from the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH DNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2275
What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1137
What does the standard kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3938
What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene?
FAQ ID -2712
What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3501
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