Product FAQ

 

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Sorted alphabetically
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID - 143064 
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984

What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?
FAQ ID -1361
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1356
What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
What is the composition of buffer QN?
FAQ ID -414
What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
What is the composition of Buffer PE?
FAQ ID -1691
What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
What is the composition of Buffer P2?
FAQ ID -203
What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
What is the composition of buffer OL2?
FAQ ID -424
What is the composition of buffer OEB?
FAQ ID -420
What is the composition of buffer OCL?
FAQ ID -422
What is the composition of buffer OCD?
FAQ ID -423
What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
What is the composition of Buffer FRN?
FAQ ID -2802
What is the composition of Buffer FG3?
FAQ ID -356
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
What is the composition of Buffer EB?
FAQ ID -199
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer APP?
FAQ ID -2804
What is the composition of Buffer APL?
FAQ ID -2803
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?
FAQ ID -475
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -782
What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube
FAQ ID - 3631
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?
FAQ ID -430
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?
FAQ ID -427
What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?
FAQ ID -1603
What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?
FAQ ID -601
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?
FAQ ID -740
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2534
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3045
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?
FAQ ID -635
What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?
FAQ ID - 3846
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3924
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3911
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3912
What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3904
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3578
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2856
What is the amount of standard for the different kit?
FAQ ID - 3936
What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?
153954
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2064
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2059
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?
FAQ ID -2010
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3523
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?
FAQ ID -320
What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?
FAQ ID -654
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits?
FAQ ID -1554
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
What is MOI?
FAQ ID -2768
What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment?
FAQ ID -2179
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?
FAQ ID -2815
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit?
FAQ ID -2511
What is in the additive in the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3810
What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2029
What is a quenched FRET assay?
FAQ ID -542
What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -1141
What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?
FAQ ID -631
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What is a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2249
What is a miScript Precursor Assay?
FAQ ID -2214
What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay?
FAQ ID -476
What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2005
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format?
FAQ ID -1463
What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1363
What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1365
What if only one heater shaker is available?
FAQ ID - 143764
What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?
FAQ ID -528
What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template?
FAQ ID -2009
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed?
FAQ ID -514
What happens if I accidentally unscrew the funnel before saliva collection is completed?
3808
What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3025
What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools?
FAQ ID -2219
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software?
FAQ ID -2700
What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes?
FAQ ID -1312
What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?
FAQ ID -1154
What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize?
FAQ ID -170
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2889
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID - 3985

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID -1751
What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2288
What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3506
What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1137
What does the standard kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3938
What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene?
FAQ ID -2712
What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3501
What does QIAGEN use for a positive control in precursor detection experiments?
FAQ ID -2212
What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain?
FAQ ID - 3513
What does PAXgene Tissue FIX contain?
FAQ ID -3020
What does a typical EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay or Array include?
FAQ ID -2740
What does 'QIAGEN Certified Solution' for Protein Crystallization mean?
FAQ ID -1121
What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy?
FAQ ID -942
What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)?
FAQ ID -618
What do you recommend for isolating RNA from more than 100 mg of plant tissue?
FAQ ID -570
What do you mean by “Quantification of locus representation” in REPLI-g WGA product?
FAQ ID -698
What do the GTIN, UDI and REF abbreviations mean on the label of any QIAGEN box?
FAQ ID - 3697
What do I need to provide when ordering a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2251
What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2707
What do I need in order to set up an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2757
What do I do if I get amplification in my no template control (NTC) with the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2298
What do I do if I cannot see amplification in the FAM channel in my KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2297
What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1246
What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -809
What detection reagents (reporter fluorophores) do you recommend for the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -480
What denaturation temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3931
What denaturation temperature should be used in cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3918
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
148743
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
FAQ ID -2337
What dedicated QIAcube Connect kits are available?
FAQ ID - 141504
What data documentation does QIAGEN's Sequencing Service provide for customers?
FAQ ID -832
What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies?
FAQ ID -2771
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
What controls should be used for normalizing miRNA real-time PCR data obtained with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1596
What controls are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits to ensure reliable results?
FAQ ID -2291
What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2826
What color channels are used?
FAQ ID - 3885
What cell lines have been tested with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1205
What cell lines have been tested with the Fastlane Cell cDNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1175
What cell lines can I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2891
What cell line does QIAGEN use for quality control testing of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2885
What can I use to isolate RNA smaller than 200 nucleotides?
FAQ ID -115
What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried?
FAQ ID -572
What can I do to stimulate saliva flow?
3805
What can I do if I don't see the fill line anymore due to saliva bubbles?
3807
What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3675
What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA?
FAQ ID -728
What can be the reason for low DNA yields after normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2239
What can be done if the protein pellet does not solubilize completely using the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1580
What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly?
FAQ ID -1834
What buffer should be used to dilute cDNA made using the miScript Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -1601
What buffer conditions give the best resolution for agarose gel electrophoresis?
FAQ ID -2256
What blocking reagents do you recommend for chemiluminescent detection using Penta-, Tetra-, and RGS-His antibodies?
FAQ ID -1093
What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2491
What are your recommendations for PCR template preparation for use with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1221
What are your recommendations for cotransfecting several plasmids?
FAQ ID -124
What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits?
FAQ ID -2408
What are the yield and integrity of nucleic acids isolated from blocks of PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3613
What are the typical yields obtained from Buccal swabs on BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3071
What are the turnaround times for FlexiPlate siRNA orders?
FAQ ID -1478
What are the Tms of PCR products obtained using the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1599
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2784
What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2760
What are the storage conditions?
FAQ ID - 3748
What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
What are the storage conditions for the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2540
What are the storage conditions and expiry date of QIAcuity consumables?
3780
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
What are the starting volumes of homogenate for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1939
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What are the sequences of the FlexiTube siRNAs?
FAQ ID -851
What are the restriction sites of the pDrive Vector in the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -160
What are the ResDNA Quant Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3878
What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
FAQ ID -2355
What are the recommended storage conditions for the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit and its components?
FAQ ID -1077
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What are the recommended culture and buffer volumes for a very low-copy plasmid?
FAQ ID -168
What are the new features of the EasyXpress Insect Kit II compared to the original Protein Synthesis Insect kit?
FAQ ID -1220
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
What are the most commonly used protease inhibitors?
FAQ ID -53
What are the molecular weights of proteins in the 6xHis Protein Ladder?
FAQ ID -169
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
What are the maximum culture volumes to use with the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi or Maxi Kit?
FAQ ID -167
What are the major differences between QIAseq Targeted RNA Panel TCR kit and previous QIAseq Immune Repertoire RNA library kit?
FAQ ID - 3999
What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2438
What are the main differences between Rotor-Gene and QuantiTect or QuantiFast PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2119
What are the main differences between other magnetic beads and the BioMag particles?
FAQ ID -272
What are the LIMS capacity of the software?
153949
What are the limits of detection of the QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3853
What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC?
FAQ ID -2449
What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2775
What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2758
What are the ideal and the largest PCR amplicon sizes when using the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2004
What are the heating/cooling rates in the QIAquant instruments?
153919
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
What are the features of the new PyroMark Q96 ID software 2.5?
FAQ ID -2867
What are the features of the expression vector used for QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia?
FAQ ID -2050
What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays, for example, in terms of design and validation?
FAQ ID -2821
What are the features and benefits of the QIAexpress 6xHis Tag System?
FAQ ID -193
What are the expected yields of total RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1942
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
What are the expected PCR results when using EpiTect Control DNA on untreated or bisulfite-converted DNA?
FAQ ID -2011
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1919
What are the expected DNA yields from different tissues using the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -45
What are the expected average DNA yields from plant extractions on the BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -771
What are the excitation and emission wavelengths of the reporter and classification lasers of the LiquiChip Instrument?
FAQ ID -479
What are the effects of low A260/A230 ratios in RNA preparations on downstream applications?
FAQ ID -2248
What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies?
FAQ ID -385
What are the dimensions of the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2545
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAsymphony SP System?
FAQ ID -1901
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1407
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148729
What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2358
What are the differences between QIAxcel Advanced and QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3857
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry and PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification?
FAQ ID -665
What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2759
What are the corresponding QIAGEN names for former Biotage instruments?
FAQ ID -2285
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What are the compatibilities of different reagents with Ni-NTA matrices?
FAQ ID -49
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0?
FAQ ID -2849
What are the calculated molecular weights of the TAGZyme enzymes?
FAQ ID -329
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
What are the applications the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool can be used for?
FAQ ID -1111
What are the amplicon lengths of the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2289
What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?
FAQ ID -2786
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What are the advantages of REPLI-g over conventional DNA sample processing and amplification methods?
FAQ ID -686
What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-(P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3838
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H- (P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3960
What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3064
What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel?
FAQ ID -1059
What are some of the assays that are adaptable to the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -477
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits?
153892
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3950
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits?
3753
What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure?
FAQ ID - 3663
What are Principal Components analyzed in Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2200
What are possible reasons for reduced DNA yields with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -2148
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2359
What are exo-resistant random hexamers used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -710
What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
What are Elution Microtube adapters and Microplate adapters used in the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit, and how can I order them?
FAQ ID -646
What are EasyXtal 15-well Tools used for?
FAQ ID -2217
What are critical steps during CTC enrichment?
3830
What are common sized libraries observed on a TapeStation, Bioanalyzer, or similar instruments?
FAQ ID - 3837
What are clusters analyzed in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2201
What applications can the QIAquant be used for?
153927
What applications are offered on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1403
What applications are offered on the QIAcube Connect MDx instrument?
148726
What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -849
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3919
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3932
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation?
FAQ ID -630
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyze the results. Any suggestions?
FAQ ID - 3621
Total RNA from what sample types are compatible with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3660
There is no barcode on the QIAsymphony cooling adapter, and the instrument asks for one. What do you suggest I do?
FAQ ID - 3532
The Sigma Centrifuge makes a loud noise at low speeds which disappears at higher speeds, when using the 2x96-well plate rotor. What is the problem?
FAQ ID -776
The QIAsymphony RNA kit uses RLT plus as lysis buffer. Can samples lysed in RLT and then stored in the freezer be used on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID - 3533
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
The Multiflow Dispense Head on my BioRobot is not dispensing the correct amount of liquid. What can I do?
FAQ ID -652
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
The integrity of my DNA sample (e.g. QIAxcel Connect) is bad.
FAQ ID - 3958
The Gel Cartridge is installed and all status indicators for the QIAxcel System are good but when clicking the "RUN" button, nothing happens. The green highlight goes down the Sequence?
FAQ ID -1850
The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?
FAQ ID -2750
The disruption of my sample worked well with the TissueLyser LT, but I am not satisfied with the RNA yield. What do you suggest?
FAQ ID -2555
Should total RNA or small enriched RNA be used as the starting material for the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3659
Should sample lysate volumes be exactly 200 µL, 500 µL, or 1000 µL when loaded on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2031
Should miScript PreAMP Primer Mixes be used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3570
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the neomycin-resistance marker, the puromycin-resistance marker, or the GFP reporter gene?
FAQ ID -2882
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?
FAQ ID -2900
Should I use Omniscript or Sensiscript for reverse transcription of low-copy mRNA?
FAQ ID -297
Should I use Ni-NTA Agarose in column or batch format for purification of 6xHis-tagged proteins?
FAQ ID -147
Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays?
FAQ ID -2747
Should I input the dilution factor of my samples into the LiquiChip Analyser Software dilution factors of samples?
FAQ ID -1211
Should cells be washed before collection?
FAQ ID - 3544
Should cells be washed before collection?
FAQ ID - 3556
QuantiTect Primer Assays are bioinformatically validated, genomewide primer sets. What does “bioinformatically validated” mean?
FAQ ID -1982
On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?
FAQ ID -2719
On which cyclers can the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be used?
FAQ ID -2596
On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?
FAQ ID -2973
On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?
FAQ ID -2978
My samples are highly fragmented. Is the dPCR result for resDNA quantification accurate?
FAQ ID - 3877
My samples are expected to have low concentrations. Can I load more sample into the workflow or more lysate into the PCR reaction?
FAQ ID - 3995
My QuantiTect Master Mix did not freeze at degrees. Is it still ok to use?
-20
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3956
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3945
My BioRobot 9604 came with several Accessory Applications. Is it recommended I run these protocols?
FAQ ID -872
My BioMag is about to expire, is it still any good?
FAQ ID -268
My ADAPT report states "Run Invalid" and does not display any sample results. Why is this?
FAQ ID -2306
Microscopic/visual confirmation of successfully sorted cells can be used to optimize sorting conditions. Can stained cells be used?
FAQ ID - 3559
May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit?
FAQ ID -2698
May I continue with the saliva collection if I accidentally unscrewed the funnel prematurely?
3809
Is your Nuclease-Free Water fluorescence-free?
FAQ ID -1291
Is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3929
Is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3916
Is V600E the only mutation that can be detected with the codon 600 assay in the BRAF Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2382
Is training of lab personnel included with the purchase of a BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1239
Is TopTaq DNA Polymerase a hot-start polymerase?
FAQ ID -1748
Is this available without glycerol?
FAQ ID - 3959
Is there something to consider when working with transduced cells treated with Polybrene?
3790
Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3185
Is there anything to consider when processing cultured cells on coated cultivation dishes? Are additional purification steps required to eliminate or reduce coating reagents such as Poly-L-Lysine?
3791
Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?
FAQ ID - 3460
Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
FAQ ID -2346
Is there a way to compare the environmental impacts of the kit?
FAQ ID - 3991

Is there a user manual available for the PyroMark Assay design software?
FAQ ID -2851
Is there a stopping point in the protocol for Suspended Cells using the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit?
FAQ ID -837
Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2331
Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers?
FAQ ID -2980
Is there a quality difference between CompactPrep Plasmid Mega and Giga and the CompactPrep Plasmid Midi and Maxi Kits?
FAQ ID -1882
Is there a need to compensate for additional liquid volume added with the positive control DNA, or a buccal swab lysate in the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3088
Is there a limit to the size of proteins that can be purified using the Qproteome Glycoprotein Kits?
FAQ ID -1071
Is there a critical step during upfront sample handling when using the PAXgene Blood RNA MDX kit?
FAQ ID -2493
Is there a charge for user training on the QIAsymphony SP System?
FAQ ID -1900
Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.
FAQ ID -2349
Is the virus inactivated during the procedure?
3800
Is the TurboCapture Microplate Holder Type B compatible with the Biomek FX robotic workstation?
FAQ ID -1040
Is the T790M mutation included in the EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2314
Is the surface tension of the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tools similar to that of a siliconized cover slide?
FAQ ID -1107
Is the software of the QIAquant compatible with 21CFR part11?
153930
Is the SeqTarget System compatible with standard-size PCRs?
FAQ ID -2241
Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?
FAQ ID -2343
Is the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers?
FAQ ID - 3552
Is the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers?
FAQ ID - 3540
Is the Reagent Bottle Rack, Grey, QC2 (cat. no. 9026197) compatible with the QIAcube Classic instrument?
FAQ ID - 3993
Is the random biotin labeling of proteins expressed with your EasyXpress Biotin Labeling Kit as sensitive as labeling with radioactivity?
FAQ ID -875
Is the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for miRNA amplification?
FAQ ID -1609
Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2652
Is the QuantiFast Probe PCR +ROX Vial Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2651
Is the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR +R Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2653
Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing (NGS)?
FAQ ID - 3518
Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing?
FAQ ID - 3517
Is the QIAxcel Advanced discontinued?
FAQ ID - 3983

Is the QIAsymphony RNA Kit compatible with stabilized samples?
FAQ ID -1944
Is the QIAquant equipped with a temperature gradient function?
153923
Is the QIAprep&amp CRISPR Kit also applicable to other gene-editing technologies such as TALENs and ZFN?
3787
is the purity of nucleic acids isolated with the PAXgene Tissue Kits?
FAQ ID -3044
Is the pH indicated in the formulation sheet for Screening Suite buffers the final pH?
FAQ ID -1123
Is the performance of the HiPerFect HTS Reagent affected if it has accidentally been stored at°C?
-20
Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples?
FAQ ID -2526
Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples?
FAQ ID -3039
Is the miRNA reverse transcription control (miRTC) used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3573
Is the Microbial qPCR mastermix used in the Microbial DNA assay and in the Microbial DNA arrays free of genomic bacterial DNA?
FAQ ID - 3535
Is the master mix of QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR aliquoted into several tubes to prevent cross-contamination?
FAQ ID -1697
Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?
FAQ ID - 3965
Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?
FAQ ID - 3994
Is the Fast Reaction Mix ready to use in the Investigator IDplex GO?
FAQ ID -3087
Is the expression level of miRNA precursors lower compared to that of mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID -2807
Is the EasyXtal Tool compatible with liquid-handling systems and visualization robots?
FAQ ID -1118
Is the E. coli Host Strain M15[pREP4] resistant to Zeocin?
FAQ ID -842
Is the DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long range PCR (>1 kb) and long read DNA sequencing?
153891
Is the DNA extracted with the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long-range PCR (>1 kb) and long-read DNA sequencing?
3760
Is the CpG software included in the PyroMark instruments to study methylation status?
FAQ ID -2842
Is the cDNA cleanup step in the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit workflow absolutely required?
FAQ ID - 3571
​
Is the 260/230 nm absorbance ratio specified for RNA derived from the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2514
Is sequence information for HP Validated siRNAs provided in the FlexiTube format?
FAQ ID -1665
Is sample pretreatment required for purifying RNA on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1938
Is RNAprotect Cell Reagent provided in the RNeasy Protect Cell Kit available separately?
FAQ ID -1217
Is RNAprotect Bacteria Reagent compatible with the RNeasy Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -797
Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?
FAQ ID -3143
Is RNA preserved in saliva collected in PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3818
Is RNA from red blood cells also isolated when RNA is extracted from a PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube?
FAQ ID -2509
Is RNA co-purified with DNA using QIAsymphony DNA Tissue protocols?
FAQ ID -1920
Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2960
Is restriction enzyme digestion required?
FAQ ID - 3875
Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?
FAQ ID -3182
Is QIAseq FastSelect truly as easy as combining a reagent with RNA and ramping down the temperature?
FAQ ID -147909
Is QIAGEN carrier RNA sold separately?
FAQ ID -351
Is Q-Solution required for PCR with QIAGEN's PCR kits?
FAQ ID -380
Is plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid Purification Kits suitable for in vitro transcription?
FAQ ID -1
Is Phoenix Hot Start Taq capable of multiplex PCR?
FAQ ID - 3901
Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary suspension cell types?
FAQ ID -2269
Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary adherent cell types?
FAQ ID -2268
Is mRNA isolation necessary for sensitive RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -111
Is mitochondrial DNA isolated with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2030
Is magnetic particle carry-over in the eluates on the BioSprint 96 normal?
FAQ ID -2073
Is it possible to use the touch down PCR option on QIAquant with two acquisition points in the same channel?
153925
Is it possible to use the REPLI-g WTA Single Cell kit to amplify miRNA?
FAQ ID - 3563
Is it possible to use the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit with bacterial RNA?
FAQ ID -785
Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?
FAQ ID -3138
Is it possible to use the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit in batch format?
FAQ ID -1069
Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2968
Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits?
FAQ ID -2969
Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?
FAQ ID -3139
Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-TriSystem Vectors with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Insect Kit?
FAQ ID -876
Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-Trisystem Vector with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1225
Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
Is it possible to use MaXtract for an organic extraction with a mixture of phenol and BCP (1 bromine chlorpropane)?
-3
Is it possible to use Lyse&Spin baskets?
FAQ ID - 143762
Is it possible to use lower siRNA concentrations with FlexiTube siRNA Premix?
FAQ ID -2264
Is it possible to use LiquiChip beads for FACS applications?
FAQ ID -733
Is it possible to use less than 1 mg of protein with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -599
Is it possible to use frozen cell pellets with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit?
FAQ ID -835
Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols to isolate biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3610
Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols for extraction of biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3043
Is it possible to use different sample types in one run with the MagAttract 96 cador Pathogen Kit?
FAQ ID -2072
Is it possible to use ABI instruments without ROX as a passive reference?
FAQ ID - 3889
Is it possible to use a standard processor — the kind used routinely for formalin-fixed samples — for dehydration and paraffin infiltration of PAXgene Tissue treated samples?
FAQ ID -3032
Is it possible to use a QIAzol lysate for the isolation of RNA from tissue on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -573
Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
Is it possible to transfect DNA into insect cell lines such as Drosophila melanogaster S2?
FAQ ID -397
Is it possible to test the efficiency of FastSelect rRNA removal by using a Bioanalyzer, etc.?
FAQ ID -147916
Is it possible to synthesize membrane proteins using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -602
Is it possible to store the lysates? How can the lysates be stored?
FAQ ID - 3973
Is it possible to store TAGzyme enzymes at°C?
-80
Is it possible to store nucleic acids extracted using the SpeedXtract Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3680
Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?
FAQ ID - 3362
Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2996
Is it possible to scale up sample volume and reaction volume?
FAQ ID - 3884
Is it possible to scale up QuantiTect Reverse Transcription reactions to allow use of larger amounts of RNA?
FAQ ID -1063
Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?
FAQ ID -3155
Is it possible to purify viral RNA using FastLane Cell RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1484
Is it possible to purify DNA from the whole sample of a PAXgene Saliva Collector in one preparation?
3826
Is it possible to purify and normalize long range PCRs produced with PCR kits from other vendors for the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2243
Is it possible to purify a GST-tagged protein under denaturing conditions using Glutathione Superflow?
FAQ ID -2172
Is it possible to purchase Buffer VXL which is part of the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit, (Cat No.: 54104, 54106) separately?
FAQ ID - 3712
Is it possible to process volumes of saliva from the PAXgene Saliva Collector other than the 400 or 1000 µl from the standard protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Midi Kit using the QIAsymphony SP instrument?
3824
Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run?
FAQ ID -3033
Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run?
FAQ ID - 3606
Is it possible to place the PAXgene Saliva Collector tube directly on the QIAsymphony SP instrument sample rack?
3825
Is it possible to perform laser microdissection with tissues stabilized with RNAprotect Tissue reagent?
FAQ ID -608
Is it possible to perform immunoprecipitation (IP) directly on protein fractions from the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -855
Is it possible to perform a UNG treatment when using QuantiTect kits?
FAQ ID -564
Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?
FAQ ID -3124
Is it possible to normalize to more or less than 500 ng with the SeqTarget System if needed?
FAQ ID -2235
Is it possible to modify the transduction protocol for Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays to save some pipetting steps?
FAQ ID - 3709
Is it possible to modify QIAsymphony protocols?
FAQ ID -1903
Is it possible to microdissect PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissues?
FAQ ID -2531
Is it possible to measure the proteolytic activity of proteins on the surface of exosomes that were isolated with ExoEasy?
FAQ ID - 3599
Is it possible to manually process PAXgene Tissue treated samples without using an automated processor?
FAQ ID -3036
Is it possible to isolate single stranded DNA (ssDNA) with the QIAEX II Kit from agarose or polyacrylamide gels?
FAQ ID -576
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3476
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3483
Is it possible to isolate free genomic DNA using the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID -358
Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2995
Is it possible to isolate DNA from bone marrow with the QIAamp DNA Blood Kits?
FAQ ID -563
Is it possible to isolate both RNA and recombinant 6xHis-tagged protein from the same sample?
FAQ ID -532
Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit?
FAQ ID -2972
Is it possible to interrupt the PAXgene Blood DNA kit protocol?
FAQ ID - 3503
Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into tissue processing?
FAQ ID - 3608
Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into the processing?
FAQ ID -3037
Is it possible to increase the amount of sample to obtain higher signals using the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3090
Is it possible to increase nucleic acid concentrations when following protocols on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1232
Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous run?
153947
Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous PCR run on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2093
Is it possible to get a Custom RT2 Profiler PCR Array, cat. # 330131, with primer assays targeting transcripts of different species, e.g. assays targeting transcripts from mouse and assays targeting transcripts from human, on one plate?
FAQ ID - 3710
Is it possible to fix over a weekend?
FAQ ID -3027
Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?
FAQ ID -3120
Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?
FAQ ID -3119
Is it possible to establish an internet connection with QIAquant instrument?
153952
Is it possible to embed PAXgene Tissue fixed and stabilized samples in Optimal Cutting Temperature (OCT) medium for freezing?
FAQ ID -2525
Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA obtained with the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit in nuclease-free water?
FAQ ID -1355
Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA from the QIAprep Spin Miniprep columns with buffer containing Potassium Phosphate?
FAQ ID -854
Is it possible to edit the sample sheet in the Rotor-Gene Q software after a PCR run?
FAQ ID -2092
Is it possible to edit the sample sheet after the run in the QIAquant Software?
153955
Is it possible to collect intact mitochondria before or after the density gradient centrifugation step of the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation protocol?
FAQ ID -1187
Is it possible to cleave the 6xHis-tag from an expressed protein?
FAQ ID -140
Is it possible to clean up a methylation reaction containing bisulfite with QIAquick Cleanup Kits?
FAQ ID -519
Is it possible to change voltage set-up from 110V to 230V on the QIAcuity instruments?
3761
Is it possible to buy the EZ Competent Cells of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Plus Kit separately?
FAQ ID -763
Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3038
Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue blocks?
FAQ ID -2524
Is it possible to adjust the Lysis Buffer volume used with the Qproteome Bacterial Protein Preparation Kit?
FAQ ID -841
Is it normal that the binding capacity of GST-resins decreases with flow rate?
FAQ ID -2174
Is it necessary to reanalyze a plate with VPF (Volume Precision Factor) that was already processed using a QIAcuity instrument that was purchased in 2020?
3771
Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1415
Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube?
148736
Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube Connect?
FAQ ID - 141496
Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?
FAQ ID -2373
Is it necessary to include a genomic DNA removal step with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1614
Is it necessary to clean up cDNA prepared with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1610
Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue?
FAQ ID -3034
Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue?
FAQ ID - 3607
Is it good to pool multiple RNA replicates to detect expression changes that are consistently reproducible?
FAQ ID -2663
Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2348
Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2783
Is GFP excited and detected by the green laser of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -737
Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2959
Is FlexiTube GeneSolution available for other scales than the 1 nmol scale?
FAQ ID -1666
Is Factor SB of the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit the same as Factor MP of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -1049
Is dPCR sensitive to inhibition?
FAQ ID - 3880
Is double centrifugation required for plasma processing?
FAQ ID - 3643
Is DNA extraction from the samples needed?
FAQ ID - 3873
Is dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) immunogenic?
FAQ ID -471
Is clot detection possible on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ - ID 3588
Is cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for use in microarray analysis?
FAQ ID -1587
Is an additional proteinase K digest possible with DNeasy PowerSoil Kit and DNeasy PowerLyzer Kit?
FAQ ID - 3725
Is a standard curve needed in dPCR?
3786
Is a special processing protocol needed?
FAQ ID -2523
Is a special processing protocol needed?
FAQ ID -3035
Is a saliva collection device provided in the RNeasy Protect Saliva Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1213
Is a restriction digest necessary for DNA isolated from PAXgene Saliva samples before performing a dPCR run using the QIAcuity?
3829
Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the Rotor-Gene Q to obtain reproducible results?
FAQ ID -2079
Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the QIAquant to obtain reproducible results?
153920
Is 2 kb the minimal gDNA fragment size for REPLI-g Whole Genome Amplification?
FAQ ID -682
Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Rotor Gene-Q software can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID -2568
Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2569
Investigator Quantiplex: For which real-time cyclers has the kit been validated?
FAQ ID -2567
Investigator Quantiplex: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or 7500 Fast Real-Time PCR System?
FAQ ID -2571
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3730
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: On which real-time cyclers is the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit validated?
FAQ ID - 3728
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or QuantStudio 5 Real-Time PCR System?
FAQ ID - 3732
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Can the kit be run on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID - 3729
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3742
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3743
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: On which real-time cyclers is the kit validated?
FAQ ID - 3741
Investigator Quantiplex and Quantiplex Pro: What do I have to consider if I am using Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3?
FAQ ID -2570
In which tubes is clot detection possible on QIAsymphony?

FAQ ID - 3589

In which solution can I keep my protein for the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
FAQ ID -2416
In which formats are crystallization condition Screening Suites available?
FAQ ID -1127
In which format can PyroMark CpG Assays be ordered?
FAQ ID -2824
In which channels can you detect the CGT dPCR assays?
FAQ ID - 3863
In the results table generated with the QIAxcel System, what does "normalized area" mean?
FAQ ID -1854
In the REST software, what is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on the 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2455
If Vapor-Lock is used to overlay PCR reactions, which volume should be entered as reaction volume in the Rotor-Gene Q Software?
FAQ ID -2150
If the M500 method is used with the QIAxcel System, does a new DNA reference marker table have to be created?
FAQ ID -1856
If template abundance differs significantly between housekeeping and target gene, are both amplified equally efficient with the QuantiTect Multiplex Kits?
FAQ ID -718
If pQE40 is used to express a fusion protein with DHFR, can the DHFR be cleaved afterwards?
FAQ ID -513
If orders cannot be placed online, how can QIAgenes be ordered?
FAQ ID -2046
If new dyes or chemistries appear on the real-time PCR market, will Rotor-Gene Q be capable of running those dyes?
FAQ ID -2087
If less than 48/96 samples are being processed, is it possible to leave positions empty with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2492
If I want to use BioMag particles, do I have to buy a QIAGEN magnet too or can I use one that I already have?
FAQ ID -266
If I cannot order FlexiPlate siRNA online, how do I order?
FAQ ID -1371
If I cannot find a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my target gene in rat, can I use the assays for the orthologous genes in mouse and human?
FAQ ID -1145
If I am working with a difficult-to-transfect cell type or if I obtain only weak silencing effects what can I do?
FAQ ID -2265
If I am using BioMag Streptavidin to capture biotinylated oligos, how can I then remove the oligos?
FAQ ID -279
If housekeeping and target genes differ significantly in abundance, will they both be amplified with equal efficiency using the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2129
If FlexiPlate siRNA was accidentally redissolved in siRNA Suspension Buffer instead of water, resulting in a 2x buffer, would it affect performance of the siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1477
If both MaXtract Low Density and High Density is suitable for an application, which type is preferable to use?
FAQ ID -1310
If a QuantiTect Primer Assay has more than one version number, does this mean that earlier assay versions may not work?
FAQ ID -1136
If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed?
FAQ ID -2977
If 400 µl are used as lysis volume, how do I concentrate the lysate? (Otherwise the DNA would be too diluted.)
FAQ ID - 143766
I would like to use the kit on another third party instrument. Who should I contact?
3803
I would like to stop during the library preparation procedure. When can I do that?
FAQ ID - 3687
I would like to sequence my siRNA constructs. Does QIAGEN offer Sequencing Services for cloned siRNA?
FAQ ID -829
I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?
FAQ ID -2360
I want to start with gene silencing (RNAi) experiments. Do you have informational literature?
FAQ ID -580
I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?
FAQ ID -3116
I used to buy BioMag particles from a company by another name? Are your BioMag particles the same thing?
FAQ ID -263
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