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When is chloramphenicol amplification of plasmids performed?
FAQ ID -3
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When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
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When delivering liquid to a 96-well plate using the MultiFlow Dispenser Head on my BioRobot , one or more rows in the plate contains less liquid per well than specified by the protocol. What is going wrong?
FAQ ID -653
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When and how often do I need a new VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3785
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What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
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What would happen if I used home-made PCR master mixes or master mixes from other manufacturers with the RT² products?
FAQ ID -2715
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What will happen, if the normalized DNA for the SeqTarget System is eluted with Buffer EB instead of EB2?
FAQ ID -2242
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What water should I use to prepare the buffer concentrates?
FAQ ID - 3986
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What volume of bacterial culture can be processed using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1357
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What voltage should be used to run my agarose gel with the GelPilot Agarose?
FAQ ID -2261
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What vector do you recommend as template for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1224
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What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
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What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2085
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What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the QIAquant?
153922
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What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV RT RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3961
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What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase-H-?
FAQ ID - 3839
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What types of materials from environmental samples could interfere with WGA?
FAQ ID -666
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What type of Sequencing Services does QIAGEN offer?
FAQ ID -781
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What type of samples can I use for the KRAS PCR and EGFR kits?
FAQ ID -2293
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What type of promoter should my template have for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1223
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What type of magnet do you recommend for handling the magnetic beads in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol?
FAQ ID -1193
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What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
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What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
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What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
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What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
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What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
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What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
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What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
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What technologies are used by the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2286
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What starting material can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit?
FAQ ID -1184
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What starting amount of RNA purified using an miRNeasy Kit should be used with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1597
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What specification do you have for the high-speed shaker system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3526
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What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
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What species are QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates offered for?
FAQ ID -2110
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What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
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What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3942
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What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3954
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What size of DNA can be expected?
153897
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What size of DNA can be expected?
3759
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What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
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What size bead should I use for tougher samples with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2554
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What single cell isolation methods are recommended for use with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3582
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What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
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What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
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What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
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What should I use as a standard for absolute quantification in real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1085
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What should I do if stabilized saliva samples are very heterogenous?
3820
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What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
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What should I do if cryoprecipitates form while thawing a frozen plasma sample?
FAQ ID - 3646
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What should I avoid before sample collection?
3813
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What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
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What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
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What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
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What sequencing primers can I use with the pDrive cloning vector of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -292
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What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
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What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
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What sample volumes can be used with the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2156
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What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
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What sample volumes can be processed with the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kits?
FAQ ID -2037
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What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
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What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
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What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
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What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
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What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
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What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
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What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
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What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
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What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
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What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
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What sample source do you support?
FAQ ID -
143066
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What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
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What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
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What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
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What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
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What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
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What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
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What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
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What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
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What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
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What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
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What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
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What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
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What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
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What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
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What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
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What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
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What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
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What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
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What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
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What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
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What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
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What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
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What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
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What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
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What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
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What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
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What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
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What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
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What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
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What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
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What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
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What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
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What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
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What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
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What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
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What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
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What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
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What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
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What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
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What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
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What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
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What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
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What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
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What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
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What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID -
143076
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What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
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What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
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What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
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What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
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What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
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What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
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What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
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What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
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What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
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What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
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What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
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What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
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What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
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What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
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What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
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What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
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What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
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What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
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What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
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What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
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What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
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What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
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What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
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What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
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What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
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What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
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What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
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What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
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What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
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What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
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What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
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What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
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What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
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What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
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What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
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What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
View
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
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What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
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What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
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What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3557
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What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
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What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
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What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
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What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
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What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID -
143063
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What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
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What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
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What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
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What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
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What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3565
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What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
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What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
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What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
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What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
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What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
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What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
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What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
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What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
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What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
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What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
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What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
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What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
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What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
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What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
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What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
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What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
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What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
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What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
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What is the purpose of the reference channel in QIAcuity?
3776
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What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
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What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
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What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
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What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
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What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
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What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
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What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
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What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
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What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
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What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
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What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
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What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
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What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
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What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
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What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
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What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
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What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
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What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
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What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
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What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987
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What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
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What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
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What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
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What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
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What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
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What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
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What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
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What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
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What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
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What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
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What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
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What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
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What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
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What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
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What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
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What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
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What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
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What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
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What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
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What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
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What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
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What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
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What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
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What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
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What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
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What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
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What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
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What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
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What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
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What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
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What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
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What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
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What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
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What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
View
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
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What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
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What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
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What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
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What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
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What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
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What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
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What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
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What is the input volume for QIAcuity Nanoplate well?
3782
View
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
View
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
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What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
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What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
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What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
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What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
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What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
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What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
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What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
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What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
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What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
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What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
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What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
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What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
View
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
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What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
View
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
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What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
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What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
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What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
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What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
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What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
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What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
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What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
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What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID -
143064
View
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
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What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
View
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
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What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
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What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
View
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
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What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
View
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
View
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
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What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
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What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
View
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
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What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
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What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
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What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
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What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
View
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
View
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
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What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
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What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
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