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Where can I find general information about RT-PCR and PCR arrays such as information about sample preparation, reverse transcription, quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, and PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2446
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Where can I find explanations to the warning given by the PyroMark software after run data analysis?
FAQ ID -2874
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Where can I find background information and literature on Whole Genome Amplification with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -1690
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Where can I find additional information for PreAnalytiX PAXgene products?
FAQ ID - 3515
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Where can I find a protocol for cleanup of already purified plasmid DNA?
FAQ ID -1031
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Where can I find a copy of the report files generated by running accessory protocols "Dilutor Delivery (monthly)" and "High-Speed Pipetting Sytem (monthly)" on my BioRobot 9604?
FAQ ID -766
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Where can I find a copy of the report file generated by running 'Maintenance Protocol I' on my BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -806
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Where can I find a copy of the .kpf file for a BioSprint protocol?
FAQ ID -3073
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Where can I download the protocol for the KingFisher Flex?
3798
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Where can I access Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) online for detailed information on the reagents for each respective kit?
FAQ ID -3085
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Where are the somatic mutations published?
FAQ ID -2429
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When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
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When using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what should the fluorescent label of the probe be for the customer-defined assay to detect the pathogen?
FAQ ID -2594
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When using QIAzol Lysis Reagent for RNA extraction, I see a pinkish colored aqueous phase! Is it OK?
FAQ ID -534
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When using HiPerFect HTS Reagent is it necessary to optimize amount of siRNA and transfection reagent?
FAQ ID -2556
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When should the Normalization protocol be used?
FAQ ID -1155
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When should I use the ‘Standard’ vs. the ‘Fast’ protocol for the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit
FAQ ID - 3948
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When should I use the standard vs. the fast protocol for the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3941
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When should I use Phoenix Hot Start Taq GC reaction Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3903
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When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3910
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When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3923
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When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
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When should carrier be used with the QIAamp DNA Mini or the DNeasy Blood & Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -100
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When should an intensity calibration be re-performed on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1825
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When searching for a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest, why do I only find the assay for human but not for rat?
FAQ ID -1139
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When preparing plasma with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA tubes, cat. # 768115, do you recommend that the first centrifugation step should be done with the brakes on or off?
FAQ ID - 3690
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When performing the Internal Control assay for the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what channel or filter can be used to detect MAX?
FAQ ID -2597
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When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3576
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When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3575
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When negative results are generated using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits, do I rerun them?
FAQ ID -2294
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When isolating DNA from plant cells using CTAB, should MaXtract Low or High Density be used?
FAQ ID -1308
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When is chloramphenicol amplification of plasmids performed?
FAQ ID -3
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When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
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When delivering liquid to a 96-well plate using the MultiFlow Dispenser Head on my BioRobot , one or more rows in the plate contains less liquid per well than specified by the protocol. What is going wrong?
FAQ ID -653
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When and how often do I need a new VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3785
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What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
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What would happen if I used home-made PCR master mixes or master mixes from other manufacturers with the RT² products?
FAQ ID -2715
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What will happen, if the normalized DNA for the SeqTarget System is eluted with Buffer EB instead of EB2?
FAQ ID -2242
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What water should I use to prepare the buffer concentrates?
FAQ ID - 3986
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What volume of bacterial culture can be processed using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1357
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What voltage should be used to run my agarose gel with the GelPilot Agarose?
FAQ ID -2261
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What vector do you recommend as template for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1224
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What vacuum pressure should be applied using the QIAvac 24 Plus for the QIAamp DSP Virus Kit and Blood Mini Kit Protocols?
FAQ ID -1033
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What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
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What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2085
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What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the QIAquant?
153922
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What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV RT RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3961
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What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase-H-?
FAQ ID - 3839
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What types of materials from environmental samples could interfere with WGA?
FAQ ID -666
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What type of Sequencing Services does QIAGEN offer?
FAQ ID -781
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What type of samples can I use for the KRAS PCR and EGFR kits?
FAQ ID -2293
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What type of promoter should my template have for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1223
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What type of magnet do you recommend for handling the magnetic beads in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol?
FAQ ID -1193
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What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
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What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
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What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
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What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
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What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
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What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
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What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
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What technologies are used by the therascreen PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2287
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What technologies are used by the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2286
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What starting material can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit?
FAQ ID -1184
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What starting amount of RNA purified using an miRNeasy Kit should be used with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1597
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What specification do you have for the high-speed shaker system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3526
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What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
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What species are QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates offered for?
FAQ ID -2110
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What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
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What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3942
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What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3954
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What size of DNA can be expected?
153897
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What size of DNA can be expected?
3759
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What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
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What size bead should I use for tougher samples with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2554
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What single cell isolation methods are recommended for use with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3582
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What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
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What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
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What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
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What should I use as a standard for absolute quantification in real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1085
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What should I do if stabilized saliva samples are very heterogenous?
3820
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What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
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What should I do if cryoprecipitates form while thawing a frozen plasma sample?
FAQ ID - 3646
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What should I avoid before sample collection?
3813
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What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
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What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
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What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
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What sequencing primers can I use with the pDrive cloning vector of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -292
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What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
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What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
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What sample volumes can be used with the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2156
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What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
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What sample volumes can be processed with the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kits?
FAQ ID -2037
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What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
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What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
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What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
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What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
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What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
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What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
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What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
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What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
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What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
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What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
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What sample source do you support?
FAQ ID -
143066
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What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
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What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
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What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
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What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
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What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
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What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
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What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
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What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
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What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
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What real-time PCR cyclers can the therascreen EGFR PCR Kit be used with?
FAQ ID -2310
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What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
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What real time cyclers can be used with the therascreen KRAS PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2305
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What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
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What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
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What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
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What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
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What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
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What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
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What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
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What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
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What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
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What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
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What possible reasons result in a sensitivity lower than that given in the artus® user handbook?
FAQ ID -1396
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What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2387
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
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What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
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What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
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What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
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What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
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What pathogens can be detected with the artus HSV/2 RG PCR Kits, and what is the LOD?
-1
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What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
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What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
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What must I do if error code 29 is displayed in the LCD?
FAQ ID -1562
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What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
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What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
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What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
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What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
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What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
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What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
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What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
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What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
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What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
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What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
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What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
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What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
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What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
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What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
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What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
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What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
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What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
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What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID -
143076
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What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
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What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
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What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
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What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
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What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
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What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
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What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
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What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
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What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
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What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
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What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
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What is the throughput of the QIAsymphony when using the DSP AXpH protocol?
FAQ ID -2271
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What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
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What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
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What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
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What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
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What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
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What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
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What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
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What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
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What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
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What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
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What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
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What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
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What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
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What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
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What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
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What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
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What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
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What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
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What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
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What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
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What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
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What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
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What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
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What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
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What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
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What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
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What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
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What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
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What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
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What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3557
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What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
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What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
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What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
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What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
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What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID -
143063
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What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
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What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
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What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
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What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
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What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3565
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What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
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What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
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What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
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What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
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What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
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What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
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What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
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What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
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What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
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What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
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What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
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What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
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What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
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What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
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What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
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What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
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What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
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What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
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What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
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What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
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What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
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What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
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What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
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What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
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What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
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What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
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What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
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What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
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What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
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What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
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What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
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What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
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What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
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What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
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What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
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What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
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What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
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What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
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What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
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What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
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What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987
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What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
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What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
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What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
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What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
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What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
View
What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
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What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
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What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
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What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
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What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
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What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
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What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
View
What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
View
What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
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What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
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What is the meaning of the CT value?
FAQ ID -1525
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What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
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What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
View
What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
View
What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
View
What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
View
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
View
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
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What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
View
What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
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What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
View
What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
View
What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
View
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3014
View
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3027
View
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2645
View
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
View
What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
View
What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
View
What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
View
What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
View
What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
View
What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
View
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
View
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
View
What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
View
What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
View
What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
View
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
View
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
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