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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143063
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3565

What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987

What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID - 143064 
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984

What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?
FAQ ID -1361
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1356
What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
What is the composition of buffer QN?
FAQ ID -414
What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
What is the composition of Buffer PE?
FAQ ID -1691
What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
What is the composition of Buffer P2?
FAQ ID -203
What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
What is the composition of buffer OL2?
FAQ ID -424
What is the composition of buffer OEB?
FAQ ID -420
What is the composition of buffer OCL?
FAQ ID -422
What is the composition of buffer OCD?
FAQ ID -423
What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
What is the composition of Buffer FRN?
FAQ ID -2802
What is the composition of Buffer FG3?
FAQ ID -356
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
What is the composition of Buffer EB?
FAQ ID -199
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer APP?
FAQ ID -2804
What is the composition of Buffer APL?
FAQ ID -2803
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?
FAQ ID -475
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -782
What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube
FAQ ID - 3631
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?
FAQ ID -430
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?
FAQ ID -427
What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?
FAQ ID -1603
What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?
FAQ ID -601
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?
FAQ ID -740
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2534
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3045
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?
FAQ ID -635
What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?
FAQ ID - 3846
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3924
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3911
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3912
What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3904
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3578
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2856
What is the amount of standard for the different kit?
FAQ ID - 3936
What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?
153954
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2064
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2059
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?
FAQ ID -2010
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3523
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?
FAQ ID -320
What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?
FAQ ID -654
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits?
FAQ ID -1554
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
What is MOI?
FAQ ID -2768
What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment?
FAQ ID -2179
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?
FAQ ID -2815
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit?
FAQ ID -2511
What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2029
What is a quenched FRET assay?
FAQ ID -542
What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -1141
What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?
FAQ ID -631
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What is a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2249
What is a miScript Precursor Assay?
FAQ ID -2214
What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay?
FAQ ID -476
What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2005
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format?
FAQ ID -1463
What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1363
What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1365
What if only one heater shaker is available?
FAQ ID - 143764
What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?
FAQ ID -528
What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template?
FAQ ID -2009
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed?
FAQ ID -514
What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3025
What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools?
FAQ ID -2219
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software?
FAQ ID -2700
What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes?
FAQ ID -1312
What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?
FAQ ID -1154
What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize?
FAQ ID -170
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2889
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID - 3985

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID -1751
What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2288
What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3506
What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1137
What does the standard kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3938
What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene?
FAQ ID -2712
What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3501
What does QIAGEN use for a positive control in precursor detection experiments?
FAQ ID -2212
What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain?
FAQ ID - 3513
What does PAXgene Tissue FIX contain?
FAQ ID -3020
What does a typical EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay or Array include?
FAQ ID -2740
What does 'QIAGEN Certified Solution' for Protein Crystallization mean?
FAQ ID -1121
What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy?
FAQ ID -942
What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)?
FAQ ID -618
What do you recommend for isolating RNA from more than 100 mg of plant tissue?
FAQ ID -570
What do you mean by “Quantification of locus representation” in REPLI-g WGA product?
FAQ ID -698
What do the GTIN, UDI and REF abbreviations mean on the label of any QIAGEN box?
FAQ ID - 3697
What do I need to provide when ordering a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2251
What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2707
What do I need in order to set up an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2757
What do I do if I get amplification in my no template control (NTC) with the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2298
What do I do if I cannot see amplification in the FAM channel in my KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2297
What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1246
What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -809
What detection reagents (reporter fluorophores) do you recommend for the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -480
What denaturation temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3931
What denaturation temperature should be used in cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3918
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
148743
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
FAQ ID -2337
What dedicated QIAcube Connect kits are available?
FAQ ID - 141504
What data documentation does QIAGEN's Sequencing Service provide for customers?
FAQ ID -832
What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies?
FAQ ID -2771
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
What controls should be used for normalizing miRNA real-time PCR data obtained with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1596
What controls are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits to ensure reliable results?
FAQ ID -2291
What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2826
What color channels are used?
FAQ ID - 3885
What cell lines have been tested with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1205
What cell lines have been tested with the Fastlane Cell cDNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1175
What cell lines can I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2891
What cell line does QIAGEN use for quality control testing of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2885
What can I use to isolate RNA smaller than 200 nucleotides?
FAQ ID -115
What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried?
FAQ ID -572
What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3675
What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA?
FAQ ID -728
What can be the reason for low DNA yields after normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2239
What can be done if the protein pellet does not solubilize completely using the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1580
What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly?
FAQ ID -1834
What buffer should be used to dilute cDNA made using the miScript Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -1601
What buffer conditions give the best resolution for agarose gel electrophoresis?
FAQ ID -2256
What blocking reagents do you recommend for chemiluminescent detection using Penta-, Tetra-, and RGS-His antibodies?
FAQ ID -1093
What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2491
What are your recommendations for PCR template preparation for use with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1221
What are your recommendations for cotransfecting several plasmids?
FAQ ID -124
What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits?
FAQ ID -2408
What are the yield and integrity of nucleic acids isolated from blocks of PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3613
What are the typical yields obtained from Buccal swabs on BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3071
What are the turnaround times for FlexiPlate siRNA orders?
FAQ ID -1478
What are the Tms of PCR products obtained using the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1599
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2784
What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2760
What are the storage conditions?
FAQ ID - 3748
What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
What are the storage conditions for the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2540
What are the storage conditions and expiry date of QIAcuity consumables?
3780
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
What are the starting volumes of homogenate for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1939
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What are the sequences of the FlexiTube siRNAs?
FAQ ID -851
What are the restriction sites of the pDrive Vector in the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -160
What are the ResDNA Quant Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3878
What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
FAQ ID -2355
What are the recommended storage conditions for the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit and its components?
FAQ ID -1077
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What are the recommended culture and buffer volumes for a very low-copy plasmid?
FAQ ID -168
What are the new features of the EasyXpress Insect Kit II compared to the original Protein Synthesis Insect kit?
FAQ ID -1220
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
What are the most commonly used protease inhibitors?
FAQ ID -53
What are the molecular weights of proteins in the 6xHis Protein Ladder?
FAQ ID -169
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
What are the maximum culture volumes to use with the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi or Maxi Kit?
FAQ ID -167
What are the major differences between QIAseq Targeted RNA Panel TCR kit and previous QIAseq Immune Repertoire RNA library kit?
FAQ ID - 3999
What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2438
What are the main differences between Rotor-Gene and QuantiTect or QuantiFast PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2119
What are the main differences between other magnetic beads and the BioMag particles?
FAQ ID -272
What are the LIMS capacity of the software?
153949
What are the limits of detection of the QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3853
What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC?
FAQ ID -2449
What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2775
What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2758
What are the ideal and the largest PCR amplicon sizes when using the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2004
What are the heating/cooling rates in the QIAquant instruments?
153919
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
What are the features of the new PyroMark Q96 ID software 2.5?
FAQ ID -2867
What are the features of the expression vector used for QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia?
FAQ ID -2050
What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays, for example, in terms of design and validation?
FAQ ID -2821
What are the features and benefits of the QIAexpress 6xHis Tag System?
FAQ ID -193
What are the expected yields of total RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1942
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
What are the expected PCR results when using EpiTect Control DNA on untreated or bisulfite-converted DNA?
FAQ ID -2011
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1919
What are the expected DNA yields from different tissues using the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -45
What are the expected average DNA yields from plant extractions on the BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -771
What are the excitation and emission wavelengths of the reporter and classification lasers of the LiquiChip Instrument?
FAQ ID -479
What are the effects of low A260/A230 ratios in RNA preparations on downstream applications?
FAQ ID -2248
What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies?
FAQ ID -385
What are the dimensions of the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2545
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAsymphony SP System?
FAQ ID -1901
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1407
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148729
What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2358
What are the differences between QIAxcel Advanced and QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3857
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry and PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification?
FAQ ID -665
What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2759
What are the corresponding QIAGEN names for former Biotage instruments?
FAQ ID -2285
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What are the compatibilities of different reagents with Ni-NTA matrices?
FAQ ID -49
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0?
FAQ ID -2849
What are the calculated molecular weights of the TAGZyme enzymes?
FAQ ID -329
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
What are the applications the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool can be used for?
FAQ ID -1111
What are the amplicon lengths of the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2289
What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?
FAQ ID -2786
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What are the advantages of REPLI-g over conventional DNA sample processing and amplification methods?
FAQ ID -686
What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-(P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3838
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H- (P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3960
What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3064
What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel?
FAQ ID -1059
What are some of the assays that are adaptable to the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -477
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits?
153892
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3950
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits?
3753
What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure?
FAQ ID - 3663
What are Principal Components analyzed in Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2200
What are possible reasons for reduced DNA yields with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -2148
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2359
What are exo-resistant random hexamers used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -710
What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
What are Elution Microtube adapters and Microplate adapters used in the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit, and how can I order them?
FAQ ID -646
What are EasyXtal 15-well Tools used for?
FAQ ID -2217
What are critical steps during CTC enrichment?
3830
What are common sized libraries observed on a TapeStation, Bioanalyzer, or similar instruments?
FAQ ID - 3837
What are clusters analyzed in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2201
What applications can the QIAquant be used for?
153927
What applications are offered on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1403
What applications are offered on the QIAcube Connect MDx instrument?
148726
What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -849
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3919
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3932
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation?
FAQ ID -630
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyze the results. Any suggestions?
FAQ ID - 3621
Total RNA from what sample types are compatible with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3660
There is no barcode on the QIAsymphony cooling adapter, and the instrument asks for one. What do you suggest I do?
FAQ ID - 3532
The Sigma Centrifuge makes a loud noise at low speeds which disappears at higher speeds, when using the 2x96-well plate rotor. What is the problem?
FAQ ID -776
The QIAsymphony RNA kit uses RLT plus as lysis buffer. Can samples lysed in RLT and then stored in the freezer be used on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID - 3533
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
The Multiflow Dispense Head on my BioRobot is not dispensing the correct amount of liquid. What can I do?
FAQ ID -652
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
The integrity of my DNA sample (e.g. QIAxcel Connect) is bad.
FAQ ID - 3958
The Gel Cartridge is installed and all status indicators for the QIAxcel System are good but when clicking the "RUN" button, nothing happens. The green highlight goes down the Sequence?
FAQ ID -1850
The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?
FAQ ID -2750
The disruption of my sample worked well with the TissueLyser LT, but I am not satisfied with the RNA yield. What do you suggest?
FAQ ID -2555
Should total RNA or small enriched RNA be used as the starting material for the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3659
Should sample lysate volumes be exactly 200 µL, 500 µL, or 1000 µL when loaded on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2031
Should miScript PreAMP Primer Mixes be used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3570
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the neomycin-resistance marker, the puromycin-resistance marker, or the GFP reporter gene?
FAQ ID -2882
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?
FAQ ID -2900
Should I use Omniscript or Sensiscript for reverse transcription of low-copy mRNA?
FAQ ID -297
Should I use Ni-NTA Agarose in column or batch format for purification of 6xHis-tagged proteins?
FAQ ID -147
Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays?
FAQ ID -2747
Should I input the dilution factor of my samples into the LiquiChip Analyser Software dilution factors of samples?
FAQ ID -1211
Should cells be washed before collection?
FAQ ID - 3544
Should cells be washed before collection?
FAQ ID - 3556
QuantiTect Primer Assays are bioinformatically validated, genomewide primer sets. What does “bioinformatically validated” mean?
FAQ ID -1982
On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?
FAQ ID -2719
On which cyclers can the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be used?
FAQ ID -2596
On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?
FAQ ID -2973
On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?
FAQ ID -2978
My samples are highly fragmented. Is the dPCR result for resDNA quantification accurate?
FAQ ID - 3877
My samples are expected to have low concentrations. Can I load more sample into the workflow or more lysate into the PCR reaction?
FAQ ID - 3995
My QuantiTect Master Mix did not freeze at degrees. Is it still ok to use?
-20
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3956
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3945
My BioRobot 9604 came with several Accessory Applications. Is it recommended I run these protocols?
FAQ ID -872
My BioMag is about to expire, is it still any good?
FAQ ID -268
My ADAPT report states "Run Invalid" and does not display any sample results. Why is this?
FAQ ID -2306
Microscopic/visual confirmation of successfully sorted cells can be used to optimize sorting conditions. Can stained cells be used?
FAQ ID - 3559
May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit?
FAQ ID -2698
Is your Nuclease-Free Water fluorescence-free?
FAQ ID -1291
Is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3929
Is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3916
Is V600E the only mutation that can be detected with the codon 600 assay in the BRAF Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2382
Is training of lab personnel included with the purchase of a BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1239
Is TopTaq DNA Polymerase a hot-start polymerase?
FAQ ID -1748
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