Product FAQ

 

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What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984

What is the correct matrix and filter/settings to be used on the Investigator ID plex kit?
FAQ ID -2405
What is the correct matrix to use with ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2647
What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3016
What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2395
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
What is the difference between the Influenza Master and the Influenza H1 Master of the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2207
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID - 143064 
What is the elution volume for all CE-marked artus QS-Rotor-Gene Q assays?
FAQ ID -2432
What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3382
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3383
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
What is the input sample volume when using the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2272
What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
What is the intended use of the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2273
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2645
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3027
What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3014
What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
What is the meaning of the CT value?
FAQ ID -1525
What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987

What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3565

What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143063
What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3557

What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
What is the throughput of the QIAsymphony when using the DSP AXpH protocol?
FAQ ID -2271
What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID - 143076
What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
What must I do if error code 29 is displayed in the LCD?
FAQ ID -1562
What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What pathogens can be detected with the artus HSV/2 RG PCR Kits, and what is the LOD?
-1
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2387
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What possible reasons result in a sensitivity lower than that given in the artus® user handbook?
FAQ ID -1396
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
What real time cyclers can be used with the therascreen KRAS PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2305
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
What real-time PCR cyclers can the therascreen EGFR PCR Kit be used with?
FAQ ID -2310
What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
What sample source do you support?
FAQ ID - 143066
What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample volumes can be processed with the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kits?
FAQ ID -2037
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
What sample volumes can be used with the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2156
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
What sequencing primers can I use with the pDrive cloning vector of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -292
What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
What should I avoid before sample collection?
3813
What should I do if cryoprecipitates form while thawing a frozen plasma sample?
FAQ ID - 3646
What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
What should I do if stabilized saliva samples are very heterogenous?
3820
What should I use as a standard for absolute quantification in real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1085
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
What single cell isolation methods are recommended for use with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3582
What size bead should I use for tougher samples with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2554
What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
What size of DNA can be expected?
153897
What size of DNA can be expected?
3759
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3942
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3954
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
What species are QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates offered for?
FAQ ID -2110
What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
What specification do you have for the high-speed shaker system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3526
What starting amount of RNA purified using an miRNeasy Kit should be used with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1597
What starting material can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit?
FAQ ID -1184
What technologies are used by the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2286
What technologies are used by the therascreen PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2287
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
What type of magnet do you recommend for handling the magnetic beads in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol?
FAQ ID -1193
What type of promoter should my template have for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1223
What type of samples can I use for the KRAS PCR and EGFR kits?
FAQ ID -2293
What type of Sequencing Services does QIAGEN offer?
FAQ ID -781
What types of materials from environmental samples could interfere with WGA?
FAQ ID -666
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase-H-?
FAQ ID - 3839
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV RT RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3961
What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the QIAquant?
153922
What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2085
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
What vacuum pressure should be applied using the QIAvac 24 Plus for the QIAamp DSP Virus Kit and Blood Mini Kit Protocols?
FAQ ID -1033
What vector do you recommend as template for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1224
What voltage should be used to run my agarose gel with the GelPilot Agarose?
FAQ ID -2261
What volume of bacterial culture can be processed using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1357
What water should I use to prepare the buffer concentrates?
FAQ ID - 3986

What will happen, if the normalized DNA for the SeqTarget System is eluted with Buffer EB instead of EB2?
FAQ ID -2242
What would happen if I used home-made PCR master mixes or master mixes from other manufacturers with the RT² products?
FAQ ID -2715
What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
When and how often do I need a new VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3785
When delivering liquid to a 96-well plate using the MultiFlow Dispenser Head on my BioRobot , one or more rows in the plate contains less liquid per well than specified by the protocol. What is going wrong?
FAQ ID -653
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
When is chloramphenicol amplification of plasmids performed?
FAQ ID -3
When isolating DNA from plant cells using CTAB, should MaXtract Low or High Density be used?
FAQ ID -1308
When negative results are generated using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits, do I rerun them?
FAQ ID -2294
When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3576
When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3575
When performing the Internal Control assay for the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what channel or filter can be used to detect MAX?
FAQ ID -2597
When preparing plasma with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA tubes, cat. # 768115, do you recommend that the first centrifugation step should be done with the brakes on or off?
FAQ ID - 3690
When searching for a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest, why do I only find the assay for human but not for rat?
FAQ ID -1139
When should an intensity calibration be re-performed on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1825
When should carrier be used with the QIAamp DNA Mini or the DNeasy Blood & Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -100
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3910
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3923
When should I use Phoenix Hot Start Taq GC reaction Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3903
When should I use the standard vs. the fast protocol for the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3941
When should I use the ‘Standard’ vs. the ‘Fast’ protocol for the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit
FAQ ID - 3948
When should the Normalization protocol be used?
FAQ ID -1155
When using HiPerFect HTS Reagent is it necessary to optimize amount of siRNA and transfection reagent?
FAQ ID -2556
When using QIAzol Lysis Reagent for RNA extraction, I see a pinkish colored aqueous phase! Is it OK?
FAQ ID -534
When using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what should the fluorescent label of the probe be for the customer-defined assay to detect the pathogen?
FAQ ID -2594
When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
Where are the somatic mutations published?
FAQ ID -2429
Where can I access Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) online for detailed information on the reagents for each respective kit?
FAQ ID -3085
Where can I download the protocol for the KingFisher Flex?
3798
Where can I find a copy of the .kpf file for a BioSprint protocol?
FAQ ID -3073
Where can I find a copy of the report file generated by running 'Maintenance Protocol I' on my BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -806
Where can I find a copy of the report files generated by running accessory protocols "Dilutor Delivery (monthly)" and "High-Speed Pipetting Sytem (monthly)" on my BioRobot 9604?
FAQ ID -766
Where can I find a protocol for cleanup of already purified plasmid DNA?
FAQ ID -1031
Where can I find additional information for PreAnalytiX PAXgene products?
FAQ ID - 3515
Where can I find background information and literature on Whole Genome Amplification with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -1690
Where can I find explanations to the warning given by the PyroMark software after run data analysis?
FAQ ID -2874
Where can I find general information about RT-PCR and PCR arrays such as information about sample preparation, reverse transcription, quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, and PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2446
Where can I find info on compatible reporter dyes for use in real-time multiplex PCR using the QuantiTect Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -719
Where can I find information about the worktable setup on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1243
Where can I find QIAGEN products for a specific gene or gene product?
FAQ ID -803
Where can I find the certificate of calibration for the Rotor-Disc OTV Kit (catalog number 981400)?
FAQ ID - 3695
Where can I find the composition tables for solutions used in individual Crystallization Screening Suites?
FAQ ID -1124
Where can I find the gene list for a specific RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID - 3684
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube accessories such as Shaker Rack plugs, Rack labeling strips, Reagent bottle rack, 30mL Reagent bottles, Rotor Adapter holder, Rotor adapters, Sample tubes CB, Sample tubes RB and Spin column adapter rings?
FAQ ID -3054
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube Connect accessories such as shaker rack plugs, rack labeling strips, reagent bottle racks, 30 ml reagent bottles, rotor-adapter holder, rotor adapters, sample tubes CB, sample tubes RB and spin-column adapter rings?
FAQ ID - 141505
Where can I find the public Smith-Waterman homology search tool that you refer to on your siRNA online design page?
FAQ ID -562
Where can I find the serial number on QIAGEN's BioRobots?
FAQ ID -1064
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3032
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3019
Where can I order the Streptavidin Sepharose beads for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2850
Where should I add a dye-label modification on the siRNA?
FAQ ID -648
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 ID software version 1.0?
FAQ ID -2845
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 MD software?
FAQ ID -2866
Which Anti-His Antibody is the most sensitive for my protein of interest?
FAQ ID -172
Which barcodes on sample tubes are accepted by the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID - 3598
Which BioRobot EZ1 instruments can be upgraded to become CE-IVDcompliant?
FAQ ID -1560
Which capillary sequencers can be used for detection of amplicons from the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2063
Which cell collection methods are compatible with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3543
Which cell collection methods are compatible with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3555
Which cell lines have been tested with FastLane Cell RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1485
Which chemical products do you use to prepare screening solutions for protein crystallization?
FAQ ID -1122
Which chloroform should I use for the RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -516
Which competent E. coli cells should I use to amplify the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2890
Which conditions are recommended for the storage of tissues in PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3605
Which controls can I choose for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1368
Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
FAQ ID -2418
Which database versions are used for CRISPR-Q Custom PCR Assay and CRISPR-Q Sanger Primers design?
3788
Which density gel type is contained in the yellow or green MaXtract Tubes?
FAQ ID -1315
Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2352
Which disinfectants and cleaning agents do you recommend for the BioRobot EZ1 DSP?
FAQ ID -1561
Which DNA polymerases are included in artus® kits?
FAQ ID -1386
Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
Which downstream applications have been tested with ccfDNA purified from whole blood collected and processed with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA System?
FAQ ID - 3658
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from saliva collected into PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3827
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3384
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3512
Which downstream applications have been tested with SARS-CoV-2-derived RNA purified from saliva collected into PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3828
Which elution volume is used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3703
Which elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3655
Which elution volumes can be selected using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2160
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
Which end of the PCR primer for pyrosequencing should be biotinylated?
FAQ ID -2839
Which EpiTect Bisulfite Plus kit do you recommend for blood samples, cells, and tissues?
FAQ ID -2411
Which expression systems can be used with the QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia expression constructs?
FAQ ID -2049
Which extraction kits are recommended?
FAQ ID - 3874
Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2396
Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3030
Which filter set should be used with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3017
Which filter set should be used with the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2648
Which fixation method is used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3600
Which formats are available for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1358
Which fraction will contain endosomal, microsomal and lysosomal proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -808
Which fraction will contain soluble mitochondrial proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -839
Which heating block is recommended for the pyrosequencing annealing step?
FAQ ID -2838
Which homogenization method do you recommend for tissues stored in Allprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -1572
Which human target is used for the quantification in the Investigator Quantiplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2577
Which is the best condition for eluting GST-tagged proteins from Glutathione Superflow?
FAQ ID -2173
Which kind of 96 and 384-well plates are available for FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1459
Which kit can be used for simultaneous purification of DNA and RNA from biopsies?
FAQ ID -1089
Which kit should be used to extract RNA from adipose tissue, brain, and other fatty animal tissues?
FAQ ID -467
Which kit should I use for RNA isolation from Cartilage?
FAQ ID -1026
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
Which kit, the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit, do you recommend for transfection?
FAQ ID -2320
Which kits and protocols can be used to isolate nucleic acids from microdissected PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) specimens?
FAQ ID - 3617
Which kits can be used in combination with the PyroMark CpG Assays and PyroMark Custom Assays?
FAQ ID -2822
Which materials can be used as input samples for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3702
Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
Which mode should I use in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software, supervised or unsupervised?
FAQ ID -2202
Which network settings are supported by the QIAcube Connect and Q-Base?
FAQ ID - 141517
Which nucleotide analogs can be used with TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1741
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
FAQ ID - 3340
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
Which parts are exchanged during a Preventive Maintenance visit for my QIAGEN BioRobot?
FAQ ID -1334
Which pathogens can be detected using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2206
Which plasma volumes can I process with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3648
Which plate formats are offered for QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2106
Which positive control should I use?
FAQ ID - 3896
Which primers can I use for sequencing pQE-expression vector constructs?
FAQ ID -343
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2361
Which protocol line should I use to process plasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3654
Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2380
Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2386
Which purity grade is recommended for pyrosequencing primers?
FAQ ID -2832
Which PyroMark Gold Q96 Reagent should be used for which instrument and application?
FAQ ID -2836
Which QIAcube Connect standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
FAQ ID - 141508
Which QIAGEN DNA extraction kits are compatible with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3821
Which QIAGEN kit do you recommend for purifying plasmid DNA suitable for transfection of sensitive cells?
FAQ ID -1092
Which QIAGEN plasmid preparation kits will contain LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -865
Which QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kit size should be used for each protocol?
FAQ ID -2038
Which qPCR instrument should I use with your RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2714
Which Qproteome or Protein Fractionation Kits from QIAGEN are compatible with tissue samples?
FAQ ID -755
Which QuantiTect Primer Assay should I choose for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1135
Which real-time PCR cyclers can be used with the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2208
Which real-time PCR files should customers forward when they want their data to be re-analyzed by artus® technical support?
FAQ ID -1508
Which real-time PCR kits are recommended downstream of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1592
Which regions are covered by the GR DNAseq V2 Panels (#181900)?
FAQ ID - 3688
Which resin is used in the QIAexpress Ni-NTA Fast Start Columns?
FAQ ID -836
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2312
Which sample material is validated within the CE mark for artus VZV RG PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2231
Which sample materials are validated within the CE mark for the artus HSV/2 RG PCR
-1
Which sample materials can be tested using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2209
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2154
Which sample volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3700
Which SARS-CoV-2 targets can the SARS-CoV-2 Neo Kit detect?
FAQ ID - 3881
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye have to be adjusted before running the spectral calibration on the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2649
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3031
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3018
Which software updates are included in a Premium Cover Agreement for my QIAGEN Instrument?
FAQ ID -1336
Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator IDplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2403
Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2392
Which transfection reagent is recommended for transfection of the miScript Target Protectors?
FAQ ID -2252
Which tubes are recommended for the QIAsymphony sample rack
FAQ ID - 3653
Which types and amounts of sample material can be processed for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1937
Which types of collection tubes should preferentially be used for blood samples?
FAQ ID -1496
Which variants of the EasyXtal 15-well tool are available?
FAQ ID -2221
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3947
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3940
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA/miRNA Tissue/Cells Kit?
FAQ ID - 3851
Who can help if it is not clear if issues are caused by the third party instrument or by the chemistry?
3802
Who can help in case of issues with the third party instrument?
3799
Why and when is it necessary to use carrier DNA/RNA in the extraction procedure?
FAQ ID -1489
Why are most of my samples outside of the cluster in supervised mode using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2205
Why are my DV200 values of my RNA sample so low?
FAQ ID - 3957
Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
Why are my realtime PCR amplification plots hook-shaped?
FAQ ID -587
Why are not all applications/kits/protocol files visible in the run setup (QIAcube Connect App)?
FAQ ID - 1414520
Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after addition of chloroform to the QIAzol lysates in following kits: RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini/Midi kits, RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini kit, RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kit, RNeasy 96 Universal Tissue kit, miRNeasy Mini kit, miRNeasy Micro kit, miRNeasy 96 kit and miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
FAQ ID -2345
Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kits?
FAQ ID -533
Why are some of my RNAprotect-stabilized samples frozen at 0ºC while others are not?
FAQ ID -758
Why are some of my samples outside of the cluster using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2204
Why are the centrifugation speeds for the QIAamp DNA Mini kit at 6000 x g? Can I spin at full speed?
FAQ ID -474
Why are the denaturation and annealing/extension times for QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits much shorter than those for QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2147
Why are the fluorescence intensities of the HSV detection markedly lower than those of the HSV-1 detection using the artus® HSV 1/2 LC PCR Kit?
-2
Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -2365
Why are the QuantiTect and QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits limited to triplex real-time PCR on some cyclers?
FAQ ID -715
Why are the RT² qPCR Primer Assays not designed to cross exon-intron junctions or boundaries?
FAQ ID -2710
Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -2366
Why are there various different QuantiTect Primer Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -1133
Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3022
Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3603
Why can I not find the Q-Base device in the device list during the first installation?
FAQ ID - 141516
Why can I not find the QuantiTect Primer Assay in GeneGlobe that I had previously ordered from QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -1138
Why can't I find the DNA methylation qPCR Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2743
Why can’t I see my QIAcube Connect instrument in the QIAcube Connect App?
FAQ ID - 1414518
Why did the real-time PCR yield Ct values < 12?
FAQ ID -2727
Why did we not choose commonly used genes such as the S gene, E gene, or RdRP?
FAQ ID - 3892
Why did you choose MAPK1 as a positive control in the QIAGEN RNAi Human/Mouse Control Kit?
FAQ ID -604
Why did you choose ORF1a+ORF1b and ORF3a+ORF7a?
FAQ ID - 3893
Why do casework-sample protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit start with different lysate volumes (200 µl, 500 µl, or 1000 µl)?
FAQ ID -2035
Why do I get amplification in a negative control DNA tube using the REPLI-g Kit for WGA?
FAQ ID -675
Why do I get different results for the loci SE33 if I analyze the same sample using the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit or Investigator Triplex AFS QS Kit?
FAQ ID -2401
Why do I get genomic DNA contamination in my plasmid prep?
FAQ ID -353
Why do I get smeared PCR products?
FAQ ID -87
Why do I have to add beta-mercaptoethanol (beta-ME) to lysis Buffer RLT of the RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -101
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
Why do I have wavy DNA bands on my agarose gel?
FAQ ID -2260
Why do I need normalization using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2198
Why do I need to identify my real-time instrument model when placing my order for RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2713
Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3745
Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
Why do I sometimes get light blue colonies when using the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -603
Why do melting temperatures differ between PCR fragments amplified with QIAGEN's QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits and Roche Kits?
FAQ ID -1084
Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
Why do pQE-T7 vectors of the QIAgenes E. coli system have an additional UAG amber stop codon?
FAQ ID -2043
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
Why do QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits require such a high primer concentration?
FAQ ID -1443
Why do replicates in real-time PCR have different plateau heights?
FAQ ID -539
Why do the amplification curves generated with ABI PRISM® 7000 SDS instrument look rather zigzag-shaped when compared to results generated with the ABI PRISM® 7700 SDS instrument?
FAQ ID -1522
Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
Why do you recommend using Triton X for the purification of 6xHis-tagged protein?
-100
Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
Why does my DNA sample float out of the slot when loading it onto an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -205
Why does my isolated RNA have a low OD 260/280 ratio?
FAQ ID -97
Why does my PCR product show up later when comparing the QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits with Roche kits using the same annealing temperature?
FAQ ID -1083
Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
Why does my realtime PCR assay quality decrease over time?
FAQ ID -589
Why does TA/UA cloning work with your proofreading HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1053
Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2390
Why does the Allprep DNA/RNA 96 Kit use Buffer RLT, whereas the AllPrep DNA/RNA Mini Kit uses Buffer RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1999
Why does the connection test fail?
FAQ ID - 141522
Why does the copy function not apply relative to migration time and normalized area values after loading the DNA size marker table and adding the alignment marker peaks on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1832
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
Why does the fluorescence signal drop sharply at the beginning of an artus® PCR run?
FAQ ID -1498
Why does the miScript Target Protector not induce the degradation process?
FAQ ID -2263
Why does the QIAamp DNA Mini Tissue Protocol require both ATL and AL buffer, while the Blood Protocol only uses AL?
FAQ ID -633
Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
Why does the QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest have only one version number?
FAQ ID -1134
Why does the SeqTarget Prep Protocol require a 2-step procedure?
FAQ ID -2238
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
Why had my RT² SYBR Green Mastermix been working well in the past, but now does not seem to be?
FAQ ID -2717
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1450
Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for Rotor-Gene SYBR Green Kits?
FAQ ID -2122
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
Why is a blood collection set required to collect blood into the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3628
Why is an ice-incubation step included during reaction set-up when following the QuantiTect RT-PCR but not the QuantiTect PCR protocol.
FAQ ID -283
Why is carrier RNA used during the isolation of gDNA from microdissected samples with the QIAamp DNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -473
Why is CoralLoad included in the Type-it Mutation Detect, but not in the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2068
Why is DTT used only for semen samples?
FAQ ID - 143761
Why is EvaGreen instead of SYBR Green used as fluorescent dye in the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2196
Why is it not recommended to stabilize cells with RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -941
Why is it recommended to add 1 mM IPTG for optimal protein yields using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kits?
FAQ ID -860
Why is maximum amplicon size for the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit limited to 500 bp?
FAQ ID -2060
Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
Why is my EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay "failed" as indicated in the QC page of the data analysis Excel file?
FAQ ID -2734
Why is my no template control (NTC) real-time Ct value < 35 cycles in my qPCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2686
Why is my plasmid DNA yield low?
FAQ ID -768
Why is special Type-it Fast SNP Probe PCR chemistry required for TaqMan® SNP Genotyping?
FAQ ID -2057
Why is the activation time for HotStarTaq Plus Polymerase in the QuantiFast SYBR Green Kits different from that for QuantiFast Probe Kits?
FAQ ID -1449
Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
Why is the fluorescence signal of the Internal Control on my Rotor-Gene Q very low?
FAQ ID -2574
Why is the IC not detectable although the analytical PCR is negative?
FAQ ID -1506
Why is the IC not detectable although the analytical PCR is positive?
FAQ ID -1505
Why is the initial activation step different for Rotor-Gene Probe, SYBR Green and Multiplex Kits?
FAQ ID -2118
Why is the initial fluorescence signal too high when using artus PCR assays on the Rotor-Gene cycler?
FAQ ID -1497
Why is the magnesium (Mg2+) solution supplied in a separate tube in the artus® Parvo B19 PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1533
Why is the Phoenix Hot Start Taq sometimes cloudy upon removing from -20°C storage?
FAQ ID - 3906
Why is the pQE DNA provided in QIAexpress Kits blue in color?
FAQ ID -487
Why is the QIAamp Viral RNA Mini Kit (50) currently unavailable?
FAQ ID -147395
Why is the QIAcube Connect App reacting so slowly?
FAQ ID - 141519
Why is the qRT-PCR reproducibility so critical when detecting gene expression knock down in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2774
Why is the QuantiFast denaturation step different for PCR and RT-PCR runs in the two-step protocol for the ABI 7500 and other cyclers?
FAQ ID -1442
Why is the reaction volume for QuantiFast PCR Kits lower than that for QuantiTect PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1447
Why is the RT step with the QuantiFast RT Kits much shorter compared to QuantiTect RT Kits?
FAQ ID -1451
Why is the storage time for QuantiFast PCR Kits shorter than that for QuantiTect PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1446
Why is the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit recommended for preamplification of SNPs?
FAQ ID -2067
Why is there a need to overlay the resuspended DNA pellet with PRS again (step 17 of QSP)?
FAQ ID - 3951
Why is there an asterisk for my miScript Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2176
Why is there DNA in the no-template (negative) control when using the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1620
Why is there DNA in the no-template control reaction when using the standard REPLI-g procedure, but not when using the UltraFast procedure?
FAQ ID -1327
Why is there more than one QIAgene for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2044
Why is there no detection of free reporter fluorescence in the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -732
Why is there no male DNA obtained from sexual assault samples?
FAQ ID - 143767
Why is there no QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1140
Why is there no vacuum-only protocol for the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1993
Why is there RNA in the DNA eluate when using the AllPrep DNA Mini Spin Column?
FAQ ID -1044
Why is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase sometimes cloudy upon removing from -20°C storage?
FAQ ID - 3913
Why might Affymetrix GeneChip Mapping assays interfere with the REPLI-g FFPE kit?
FAQ ID -1755
Why might my gene of interest drop out during WGA if it is not near a telomere or centromere?
FAQ ID -703
Why should DNA or cDNA targets be less than 250 bp long for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID-751
Why should I use RT² SYBR Green Mastermix with RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2706
Why should I use the EpiTect Plus FFPE Bisulfite Kit instead of isolating FFPE DNA first and then doing the bisulfite conversion?
FAQ ID -2412
Why should I use the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit when purifying RNA for microarray analysis?
FAQ ID -2188
Why should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
FAQ ID -2419
Why would clumps occur following the addition of Buffer P2 when using LyseBlue Reagent in a plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -862
Will acetone precipitation recommended in the Qproteome Protocols denature Protein?
FAQ ID -807
Will biotin detection assays be efficient when doing in vitro translation from E. coli lysates with the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -878
Will DNA from chromosomes collected in TE with a drop of mineral oil work with REPLI-g amplification?
FAQ ID -664
Will dUTP in a PCR reaction affect pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2843
Will integral, peripheral as well as lipid-anchored plasma membrane proteins be isolated with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1199
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA Tissue protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1921
Will pancreas tissue swim on top of RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -536
Will pipetting error affect the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array results?
FAQ ID -2741
Will pipetting error affect the miRNA qPCR Assay results?
FAQ ID -2728
Will proteins eluted in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol be modified, e.g. with the ligand?
FAQ ID -1195
Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
Will QIAseq FastSelect work in other species?
FAQ ID -147911
Will QuantiTect Primer Assays work at an annealing temperature of 60ºC with QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR and RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1553
Will QuantiTect Primer Assays work with Rotor-Gene SYBR Green Kits using an annealing step at 60ºC?
FAQ ID -2124
Will REPLI-g work at high temperatures?
FAQ ID -656
Will Rotor-Gene Kits also work on the Rotor-Gene 6000 and 3000 cyclers?
FAQ ID -2121
Will site-specific biotin labeling with the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin kit alter the structure and function of my protein?
FAQ ID -877
Will TA cloning work with REPLI-g WGA product?
FAQ ID -672
Will the "classic" RNeasy Mini Kit be discontinued after the launch of the Allprep DNA/RNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1054
Will the 2x QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Master Mix freeze at -20°C?
FAQ ID - 525
Will the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit work with suspension cells?
FAQ ID -801
Will the ligand in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol be specific for plasma membrane exclusively?
FAQ ID -1198
Will the optimized DNA sequence for QIAgenes be provided?
FAQ ID -2045
Will the PhosphoSerine antibody recognize Serine residues if the neighboring residues are Leucine or Isoleucine?
FAQ ID -644
Will the primer sequence for the PyroMark CpG Assay be provided?
FAQ ID -2823
Will the QIAquick PCR Purification Kit remove sufficient SYBR Green from real-time PCR reactions to allow sequencing?
FAQ ID -637
Will the QIAxcel System run using a green Data Review Software Key?
FAQ ID -1853
Will the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit work with starting materials other than adherent mammalian cells?
FAQ ID -1202
Will the random hexamers in the REPLI-g reaction interfere with downstream analysis?
FAQ ID -713
Will the REPLI-g UltraFast Mini Kit reaction always yield 10 µg DNA?
FAQ ID -1328
Will the Reverse transcription control on the RT2 profiler PCR array work on any cDNA library?
FAQ ID - 3534
Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
FAQ ID -2369
Will the sequences of the QuantiTect Primer Assays be provided?
FAQ ID -804
Will Uracil-N-Glycosylase (UNG) completely remove contaminating amplicons when using QuantiTect +UNG Kits?
FAQ ID -2139
Will VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase incorporate dUTP?
FAQ ID - 3915
Will VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase incorporate dUTP?
FAQ ID - 3927
With LyseBlue reagent for lysis control, can I now process more bacterial culture and overload the columns?
FAQ ID -864
With which platform can I perform my sequencing?
FAQ ID - 143072
With which read length should the EpiTect Hi-C NGS libraries be sequenced
FAQ ID - 143073
Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
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