Product FAQ

 

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What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
Are you able to supply a Certificate of Analysis for the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2301
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
How is the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit different from the RNeasy Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2340
How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work?
FAQ ID -2341
How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit?
FAQ ID -2350
Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -2371
Can I buy QIAquick and MinElute columns separately?
FAQ ID -2460
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
Is RNA from red blood cells also isolated when RNA is extracted from a PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube?
FAQ ID -2509
Is the 260/230 nm absorbance ratio specified for RNA derived from the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2514
How long is the fixation time?
FAQ ID -2519
What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
Are there any accessories required for sample disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2551
Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
During data analysis, how should the threshold be set in the Yellow channel on the Rotor-Gene Q cycler to analyze the Internal Control from the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit
FAQ ID -2607
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
How do I create a workspace that is free of DNA contamination, prior to carrying out a qPCR experiment?
FAQ ID -2654
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
How can I avoid or remove genomic DNA contamination from the total RNA preparation?
FAQ ID -2662
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
How does HotStart PCR help minimize nonspecific amplification events?
FAQ ID -2676
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
Why is my no template control (NTC) real-time Ct value < 35 cycles in my qPCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2686
Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
How do I determine the amplification efficiency of my qPCR assay?
FAQ ID -2694
How do I determine the linear dynamic range of my qPCR or qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2696
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2707
How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells in the miScript miRNA PCR array?
FAQ ID -2729
What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR?
FAQ ID -2749
How can I identify the binding sites of my transcription factor using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2753
At what point can I stop and freeze my samples when using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2754
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2758
What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies?
FAQ ID -2771
How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work?
FAQ ID -2779
What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2784
What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0?
FAQ ID -2849
Can I use fluorescence microscopy to assess the transfection efficiency of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with GFP in my model cell line of interest?
FAQ ID -2894
Do tissue samples require pretreatment before loading onto the QIAsymphony SP for DNA extraction?
FAQ ID -2926
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
How much DNA does a human cell contain?
FAQ ID -2948
How much RNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2949
How much DNA and RNA can be expected from human blood cells?
FAQ ID -2950
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
How can I desalt and concentrate a protein fraction by trichloroacetic acid (TCA) precipitation?
FAQ ID -2954
Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers?
FAQ ID -2980
Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
How can I keep my centrifuge tubes endotoxin-free?
FAQ ID -301
Can Buffers N3 and P3 be used interchangeably?
FAQ ID -310
Are QIAprep and QIAquick Spin columns interchangeable?
FAQ ID -311
Can I store agarose gel slices containing DNA for gel extraction at a later point?
FAQ ID -313
How can QIAGEN Protease and Proteinase K be inactivated?
FAQ ID -315
Does the 5x OneStep RT-PCR Buffer contain BSA?
FAQ ID -326
What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
Is QIAGEN carrier RNA sold separately?
FAQ ID -351
What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
How can I express toxic protein in E. coli?
FAQ ID -373
How can I improve DNA yields from very tough tissues using the DNeasy Blood & Tissue Kit or the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -374
What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies?
FAQ ID -385
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
Can siRNA silence bacterial genes?
FAQ ID -395
How should I reconstitute the lyophilized RNase-Free DNase Set with the RNeasy 96 kit?
FAQ ID -3003
Is it possible to use a standard processor — the kind used routinely for formalin-fixed samples — for dehydration and paraffin infiltration of PAXgene Tissue treated samples?
FAQ ID -3032
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3032
Can I use Tungsten Carbide beads for RNA extraction protocols using QIAGEN Kits?
FAQ ID -3053
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube accessories such as Shaker Rack plugs, Rack labeling strips, Reagent bottle rack, 30mL Reagent bottles, Rotor Adapter holder, Rotor adapters, Sample tubes CB, Sample tubes RB and Spin column adapter rings?
FAQ ID -3054
What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
How precise is the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3063
What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3064
How long does it take to set up a 96-well plate PCR reaction on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3066
Can I use a bar code scanner or reader on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3067
How can I find the run parameters for a BioSprint protocol that I am running?
FAQ ID -3069
Can BioSprint 96 be connected to LIMS?
FAQ ID -3070
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
Where can I access Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) online for detailed information on the reagents for each respective kit?
FAQ ID -3085
What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
Is there a need to compensate for additional liquid volume added with the positive control DNA, or a buccal swab lysate in the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3088
What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage?
FAQ ID -3103
Can we do modification XXXXX for custom siRNA that is not on the web page?
FAQ ID -3107
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
Do you offer FlexiTube or FlexiPlate siRNAs for rat?
FAQ ID -3114
Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?
FAQ ID -3119
Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?
FAQ ID -3120
What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
Can Dithiothreitol (DTT) be used instead of BME in Buffer RLT Plus of RNeasy Plus Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -3125
Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA?
FAQ ID -3133
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?
FAQ ID -3182
Can the Rotor-Gene Q perform gradient PCR?
FAQ ID -3183
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify plant miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3431
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
Can specific types of white blood cells be enriched from a PAXgene Blood RNA Tube prior to the RNA isolation?
FAQ ID - 3467
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3501
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be transported?
FAQ ID - 3507
How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3508
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3512
What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain?
FAQ ID - 3513
What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing?
FAQ ID - 3517
What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
Can I use the RNeasy Fibrous Tissue Mini Kit (cat. no. 74704) to extract RNA from fibrous plant material?
FAQ ID - 3521
Will the Reverse transcription control on the RT2 profiler PCR array work on any cDNA library?
FAQ ID - 3534
Microscopic/visual confirmation of successfully sorted cells can be used to optimize sorting conditions. Can stained cells be used?
FAQ ID - 3559
Is the miRNA reverse transcription control (miRTC) used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3573
Is clot detection possible on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ - ID 3588
How can I determine if a tube is suitable for clot detection on QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID - 3590
How should I thaw frozen plasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3645
How do Unique Molecular Indexes (UMIs) improve quantification?
FAQ ID - 3669
Can REPLI-g WGA be used to amplify cDNA if the cDNA is dsDNA (double-stranded DNA)?
FAQ ID - 3686
I would like to stop during the library preparation procedure. When can I do that?
FAQ ID - 3687
Which regions are covered by the GR DNAseq V2 Panels (#181900)?
FAQ ID - 3688
When preparing plasma with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA tubes, cat. # 768115, do you recommend that the first centrifugation step should be done with the brakes on or off?
FAQ ID - 3690
How do I insert and replace an absorber strip into the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep chamber?
FAQ ID - 3691
Are peak heights of Q48 comparable to other PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID - 3692
How much space does the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep instrument need?
FAQ ID - 3693
Can unused wells in a pyrosequencing discs be used in the next run?
FAQ ID - 3694
Where can I find the certificate of calibration for the Rotor-Disc OTV Kit (catalog number 981400)?
FAQ ID - 3695
What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
How do I prepare Buffer MP?
FAQ ID - 3620
Are the QIAshredder columns included in various QIAGEN kits the same?
FAQ ID - 3624
What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
Why is carrier RNA used during the isolation of gDNA from microdissected samples with the QIAamp DNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -473
Why are the centrifugation speeds for the QIAamp DNA Mini kit at 6000 x g? Can I spin at full speed?
FAQ ID -474
Are HEPES, MOPS and PIPES buffers compatible with QIAGEN's PhosphoProtein Purification kit?
FAQ ID -482
Can Ni-NTA resins be used to purify protein with an internal His-tag?
FAQ ID -496
How do I calculate the percentage of silencing with real-time RT-PCR for siRNA?
FAQ ID -498
Do you have a protocol for the removal of endotoxins from already purified plasmid DNA?
FAQ ID -500
Do you have stability data for genomic DNA isolated with the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -518
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
Can Taq DNA Polymerase use RNA as a template, and generate false positives in "no-RT" controls?
FAQ ID -523
What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
Why do replicates in real-time PCR have different plateau heights?
FAQ ID -539
How can I avoid primer-dimer formation during PCR amplification?
FAQ ID -544
How can I tell if I have primer-dimers in my PCR reaction?
FAQ ID -552
How should I store cDNA produced using Omniscript Reverse Transcriptase?
FAQ ID -561
Is it possible to isolate DNA from bone marrow with the QIAamp DNA Blood Kits?
FAQ ID -563
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried?
FAQ ID -572
Do I have to remove the oil from my PCR reaction before using the QIAquick or MinElute PCR Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -575
Are the columns of the QIAquick PCR Purification-, Gel Extraction-, and Nucleotide Removal Kit interchangeable?
FAQ ID -577
What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
Why do I sometimes get light blue colonies when using the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -603
What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)?
FAQ ID -618
How can I improve my RNA yield from liver sample when using RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -623
Why do you recommend using Triton X for the purification of 6xHis-tagged protein?
-100
What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation?
FAQ ID -630
What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?
FAQ ID -631
Why does the QIAamp DNA Mini Tissue Protocol require both ATL and AL buffer, while the Blood Protocol only uses AL?
FAQ ID -633
Will the QIAquick PCR Purification Kit remove sufficient SYBR Green from real-time PCR reactions to allow sequencing?
FAQ ID -637
What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification?
FAQ ID -665
Can I purchase Phi29 DNA polymerase only?
FAQ ID -708
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
I accidentally stored Buffer RDD of the RNase-Free DNase Set at°C. Will it still function?
-20
I ran my RNA out on an agarose gel and can see lots of bands similar to a ladder. Why?
FAQ ID -745
How much DNA is obtained in the average PCR reaction?
FAQ ID -750
Do you have information about the cleanup of single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) with QIAquick columns?
FAQ ID -759
How can I get a certificate for quality assurance (ISO 13485 and ISO 9001) from QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -762
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
Are the protocols from the BioSprint software compatible with the KingFisher software and vice versa?
FAQ ID -770
How should fluorescent labeled probes be stored?
FAQ ID -784
Is it possible to use the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit with bacterial RNA?
FAQ ID -785
Are Buffer PB of the QIAquick PCR Purification Kit and Buffer QG of the QIAquick Gel Extraction Kit interchangeable?
FAQ ID -786
How can I get specific information and a quote for my individual Sequencing Service needs?
FAQ ID -792
Can the QIAprep Spin Miniprep Kit be used for isolating plasmid DNA from mammalian cells?
FAQ ID -795
How can I separate PCR fragments that are small and very close in size on an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -800
Can I reuse the Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow resins?
FAQ ID -802
What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -809
Is the E. coli Host Strain M15[pREP4] resistant to Zeocin?
FAQ ID -842
What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -849
Why is it recommended to add 1 mM IPTG for optimal protein yields using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kits?
FAQ ID -860
Which QIAGEN plasmid preparation kits will contain LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -865
Do you have an in vitro translation kit allowing the incorporation of seleno-methionine for X-Ray crystallography based protein analysis?
FAQ ID -879
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from frozen clotted blood?
FAQ ID -900. Test
Do you have protocols for the isolation of genomic DNA from tissue using QIAGEN-tips 2500 (Mega) and 10000 (Giga)?
FAQ ID -907
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from bone?
FAQ ID -908
What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy?
FAQ ID -942
Do you have a protocol for Cyanine 570, Cyanine 670, or biotin labeling of cDNA?
FAQ ID -959
Do you have a protocol for reverse transfection of adherent cells with siRNA in 384-well plates?
FAQ ID -971
Do you have a protocol for the purification of PCR products using the BioSprint System?
FAQ ID -984
Do you have a protocol for transient transfection of Hela-S3 cells using PolyFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -997
How can I analyze proteins from exosomes and other extracellular vesicles (EVs) obtained with the exoEasy Maxi Kit by SDS-PAGE?
FAQ ID - 3707
How can I increase expression of my 6xHis-tagged protein in E. coli?
FAQ ID -63
Can miRNA and other RNAs smaller than 200 nucleotides be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148723
What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
Do I need to buy special kits for the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148725
What applications are offered on the QIAcube Connect MDx instrument?
148726
Can I program my own protocols for the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148727
Can purification columns from other suppliers be processed on the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148728
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148729
Can the QIAcube rotor adapters be autoclaved?
148730
Can the QIAcube rotor and/or buckets be removed for cleaning?
148731
Can the QIAcube be connected to a laboratory information management system?
148732
Are run reports and/or log files available on the QIAcube?
148733
How can I get software updates for the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148734
Can QIAcube Connect MDx protocol runs be interrupted, and subsequently be continued to completion?
148735
Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube?
148736
Do I need to discard partially used QIAcube tip racks?
148738
How can I decontaminate the QIAcube Connect MDx system?
148739
How can I load new protocols onto the QIAcube Connect MDx?
148740
Can the QIAcube Connect MDx heater/shaker be used independently from protocol runs?
148741
Can the QIAcube Connect MDx centrifuge be used independently from protocol runs?
148742
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
148743
Can I ask QIAGEN to upgrade my current QIAcube Connect Life Science instrument to make it an MDx instrument?
148744
Can I run life science and custom protocols on a QIAcube Connect MDx?
148745
What are the heating/cooling rates in the QIAquant instruments?
153919
Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the QIAquant to obtain reproducible results?
153920
What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the QIAquant?
153922
Is the QIAquant equipped with a temperature gradient function?
153923
Are the 96- and 384-sample blocks interchangeable?
153924
Is it possible to use the touch down PCR option on QIAquant with two acquisition points in the same channel?
153925
How many molecules can be detected in the system?
153926
What applications can the QIAquant be used for?
153927
Can I upgrade my QIAquant 96 2plex instrument to QIAquant 96 5plex or modify the set of color channels?
153928
Does QIAGEN offers arrays and assays configured specifically for QIAquant instrument?
153929
Is the software of the QIAquant compatible with 21CFR part11?
153930
Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous run?
153947
Can data be analyzed while the run is proceeding? Can data be analyzed from a previous experiment while another experiment is running?
153948
Can I use QIAquant 96 Software to analyze experiments carried out on QIAquant 384?
153950
Can I operate QIAquant 96 instrument using touchscreen and computer simultaneously?
153951
Is it possible to establish an internet connection with QIAquant instrument?
153952
Can I connect more than one QIAquant instrument to the same computer?
153953
What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?
153954
Is it possible to edit the sample sheet after the run in the QIAquant Software?
153955
What are the LIMS capacity of the software?
153949
Does the QIAquant Software have the capacity to export data? Which data formats can be used for the export?
153946
I received a kit containing the MinElute columns; however, they were left out for a while and not stored at 2–8°C upon receipt. Can I still use them?
FAQ ID - 3560
Is the DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long range PCR (>1 kb) and long read DNA sequencing?
153891
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits?
153892
Can samples be lysed overnight with Proteinase K in the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced procedure?
153893
Can the second Proteinase K lysis step in the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced procedure be carried out at lower temperatures than 65°C?
153894
Can the 2nd Prot K step be omitted?
153896
What size of DNA can be expected?
153897
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
Is it possible to change voltage set-up from 110V to 230V on the QIAcuity instruments?
3761
Can I see error codes on the instrument touchscreen?
3763
What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
Can I see on the QIAcuity Software Suite report file if the VPF (Volume Precision Factor) has been used or not?
3770
Is it necessary to reanalyze a plate with VPF (Volume Precision Factor) that was already processed using a QIAcuity instrument that was purchased in 2020?
3771
Can I prepare a dPCR reaction directly in QIAcuity Nanoplate?
3774
How to prepare DNA prior to dPCR?
3778
Can I use a custom master mix instead of a QIAGEN master mix?
3777
What are the storage conditions and expiry date of QIAcuity consumables?
3780
Can I use the QIAcuity Nanoplate in more than one runs?
3781
What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
When and how often do I need a new VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3785
Is a standard curve needed in dPCR?
3786
Which database versions are used for CRISPR-Q Custom PCR Assay and CRISPR-Q Sanger Primers design?
3788
Is there anything to consider when processing cultured cells on coated cultivation dishes? Are additional purification steps required to eliminate or reduce coating reagents such as Poly-L-Lysine?
3791
Is there something to consider when working with transduced cells treated with Polybrene?
3790
For sequencing application, does the lysate require purification?
3792
Are the CRISPR-Q PCR Assays and the CRISPR-Q Sanger Primers on GeneGlobe validated?
3793
Are the PCR products generated with CRISPR-Q Custom PCR Assays only applicable to analysis of editing efficiency by Sanger sequencing?
3794
Can the new CRISPR PCR Assays be used for dPCR on the QIAcuity? Do you have data or a protocol?
3795
What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
For the Sanger analysis tool, the customer needs to upload two .abi1 files of forward and reverse sequences? Is there any additional info that needs to be provided?
3796
What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits?
3753
Are there other options for paraffin removal?
3754
Can samples be lysed overnight with Proteinase K in the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE procedure?
3755
Can the second Proteinase K lysis step in the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE procedure be carried out at lower temperatures than 65°C?
3756
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
Can the 2nd Proteinase K step be omitted?
3758
What size of DNA can be expected?
3759
Is the DNA extracted with the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long-range PCR (>1 kb) and long-read DNA sequencing?
3760
Do you recommend 1-step or 2-step real-time RT-PCR for gene expression analysis?
FAQ ID -1056
How is the internal control (IC) PCR system designed?
FAQ ID -1383
3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID - 3323

 

Does salt concentration in the food matter when using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3346
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
CAn I use milk or other liquids with the DNeasy mericon Food kit? What volume would I use?
FAQ ID - 3350
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?
FAQ ID - 3362
I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?
FAQ ID - 3363
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately?
FAQ ID - 3368
Are QIAcube reagent bottles (cat. no. 990393) autoclavable? What type of plastic are they made of?
FAQ ID - 3369
Do I have to use a blood collection set with PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3370
Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3371
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3372
Are PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) sterile?
FAQ ID - 3373
What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be transported?
FAQ ID - 3375
Can blood samples be frozen in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3377

 

How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3378

How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at 2–8°C?
FAQ ID - 3379
Can PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at higher than room temperature (18–25°C)?
FAQ ID - 3380
What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3382
What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3383
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3384
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately?
FAQ ID - 3388
Can I buy the gDNA eliminator plates supplied in your RNeasy Plus 96 kit separately?
FAQ ID - 3389
Can I buy the gDNA eliminator columns supplied in your RNeasy Plus kits separately?
FAQ ID - 3390
Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit?
FAQ ID - 3392
What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
Are protocols also available for other instruments (e.g., Hamilton Star and Tecan Fluent)?
3797
Where can I download the protocol for the KingFisher Flex?
3798
Who can help in case of issues with the third party instrument?
3799
Is the virus inactivated during the procedure?
3800
Can I use sample volumes other than 300 µl?
3801
Who can help if it is not clear if issues are caused by the third party instrument or by the chemistry?
3802
I would like to use the kit on another third party instrument. Who should I contact?
3803
How long does a saliva collection take?
3804
What can I do to stimulate saliva flow?
3805
Can I stop saliva collection before the fill line is reached?
3806
What can I do if I don't see the fill line anymore due to saliva bubbles?
3807
What happens if I accidentally unscrew the funnel before saliva collection is completed?
3808
May I continue with the saliva collection if I accidentally unscrewed the funnel prematurely?
3809
What is in the additive in the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3810
What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
How should unused PAXgene Saliva Collector be stored?
3812
What should I avoid before sample collection?
3813
How does the stabilizing reagent in the PAXgene Saliva Collector stabilize saliva?
3814
How long can saliva in PAXgene Saliva Collector tubes be stored at room temperature?
3815
Can saliva in PAXgene Saliva Collector tubes be stored at temperatures higher than 25°C?
3816
Can saliva in PAXgene Saliva Collector tubes be stored frozen at –20 or –80°C?
3817
Is RNA preserved in saliva collected in PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3818
Are pathogens inactivated in human saliva samples collected with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3819
What should I do if stabilized saliva samples are very heterogenous?
3820
What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
Is it possible to process volumes of saliva from the PAXgene Saliva Collector other than the 400 or 1000 µl from the standard protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Midi Kit using the QIAsymphony SP instrument?
3824
Is it possible to purify DNA from the whole sample of a PAXgene Saliva Collector in one preparation?
3826
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from saliva collected into PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3827
Which downstream applications have been tested with SARS-CoV-2-derived RNA purified from saliva collected into PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3828
Is a restriction digest necessary for DNA isolated from PAXgene Saliva samples before performing a dPCR run using the QIAcuity?
3829
Is it possible to place the PAXgene Saliva Collector tube directly on the QIAsymphony SP instrument sample rack?
3825
What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
Which QIAGEN DNA extraction kits are compatible with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3821
What are common sized libraries observed on a TapeStation, Bioanalyzer, or similar instruments?
FAQ ID - 3837
Are the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter and QIAseq miRNA NGS RT Initiator compatible with the QIAseq miRNA UDI kits?
FAQ ID - 3836
What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
Can you perform qPCR analysis of miRNAs from libraries prepared with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3674
What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3675
What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure?
FAQ ID - 3663
Should total RNA or small enriched RNA be used as the starting material for the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3659
What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from whole blood for use in MRC-Holland MLPA® assays?
FAQ ID -1169
Is training of lab personnel included with the purchase of a BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1239
Do the foils sealing the EZ1 Reagent Cartridges have to be manually removed prior to loading the robot?
FAQ ID -1240
How can we get our BioRobot EZ1 upgraded when new protocols are launched?
FAQ ID -1241
Where can I find information about the worktable setup on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1243
What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1246
How should I prepare buffy coat samples for use on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1249
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of DNA from buffy coat using the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -985
What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?
FAQ ID -528
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of total nucleic acids from animal and human tissues on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -975
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of total RNA from paraffin-embedded sections on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -976
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of DNA from fungi using the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -992
Are the new EZ1 RNA Kits (cat. no. 958034; 959034; 956034) compatible with the previous EZ1 RNA Card (cat. no. 9015590) or EZ1 RNA Universal Tissue Card (cat. no 9016384)?
FAQ ID -1025
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-(P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3838
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase-H-?
FAQ ID - 3839
What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
Does the PyroMark LINE assay target all LINE sequences?
2860
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2856
How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?
FAQ ID -3163
Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry and PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
How accurate and reliable is PyroMark Q24 in mutation analysis?
FAQ ID -2094
We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyze the results. Any suggestions?
FAQ ID - 3621
What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
How does the built-in QC control for complete bisulfite conversion of DNA work on PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -2095
How long does a single run on the PyroMark Q24 take?
FAQ ID -2096
3843-How-do-I-prevent-a-drifting-baseline-in-my-pyrosequencing-pyrogram
FAQ ID - 3843
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
Can the PyroMark Q96 CpG LINE assay be used with an ID system?
2861
How many times can the cartridges for PyroMark Q24 or PyroMark Q96 ID instruments be reused?
FAQ ID -2863
How do I prevent a drifting baseline in my pyrosequencing pyrogram? If this method cannot be selected automatically in the application software, you can download the method/code file from the instrument webpage.
FAQ ID -2878
Can unused wells in a pyrosequencing plate be used in the next run?
FAQ ID -2872
What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
Is the CpG software included in the PyroMark instruments to study methylation status?
FAQ ID -2842
What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
Where can I find explanations to the warning given by the PyroMark software after run data analysis?
FAQ ID -2874
Which heating block is recommended for the pyrosequencing annealing step?
FAQ ID -2838
How many times can vacuum troughs be reused with the PyroMark Vacuum Preparation Stations?
FAQ ID -2848
What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
How many CpG sites are analyzed by the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2858
Is there a user manual available for the PyroMark Assay design software?
FAQ ID -2851
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
FAQ ID - 3340
How do I set up a PyroMark CpG Assay?
FAQ ID -2814
What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
Will the primer sequence for the PyroMark CpG Assay be provided?
FAQ ID -2823
Does QIAGEN offer a design of Custom PyroMark CpG Assays?
FAQ ID -2818
How are the PyroMark CpG Assays reconstituted?
FAQ ID -2817
How are the PyroMark CpG Assays shipped and stored?
FAQ ID -2816
What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays, for example, in terms of design and validation?
FAQ ID -2821
What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?
FAQ ID -2815
In which format can PyroMark CpG Assays be ordered?
FAQ ID -2824
Which kits can be used in combination with the PyroMark CpG Assays and PyroMark Custom Assays?
FAQ ID -2822
Does the PyroMark Assay Design or application software give any cycling conditions for individual assay primers or a PCR setup pipetting scheme?
FAQ ID -2862
What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
Will dUTP in a PCR reaction affect pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2843
Which purity grade is recommended for pyrosequencing primers?
FAQ ID -2832
What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2826
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
How do I reduce background peaks in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2877
What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
Which end of the PCR primer for pyrosequencing should be biotinylated?
FAQ ID -2839
How many nucleotides of a homopolymer can be resolved in pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2871
Where can I order the Streptavidin Sepharose beads for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2850
What are critical steps during CTC enrichment?
3830
How pure are the CTCs enriched from blood samples using the AdnaTest?
3831
Can frozen blood be used for the procedure?
3832
Can the EZ2 AdnaTest be used for other body fluids than blood?
3833
Can Heparin blood be used?
3834
Can the kit be used on the EZ2 Connect?
FAQ ID - 3845
Can I use a different elution buffer?
FAQ ID - 3847
What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?
FAQ ID - 3846
Can the kit be used on the EZ1 Advanced XL?
FAQ ID - 3844
Do you have a protocol for purification of cytoplasmic RNA from animal cells?
FAQ ID -1257
What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of RNA from leukocytes in milk?
FAQ ID -952
What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
Can QIAquick Kits be used to clean up RNA samples?
FAQ ID -490
Are RNeasy spin columns sold separately?
FAQ ID -159
Can the RNase-Free DNase Set be used for DNase digestions of RNA in solution?
FAQ ID -619
Which kit should be used to extract RNA from adipose tissue, brain, and other fatty animal tissues?
FAQ ID -467
How can I minimize degradation of RNA from my pancreas sample?
FAQ ID -624
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
Do you have a protocol for purification of total DNA from crude lysates?
FAQ ID -1255
Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from saliva and mouthwash?
FAQ ID -917
Do you have a protocol for purification of total DNA from yeast?
FAQ ID -1253
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of DNA from soft tissues using the TissueLyser?
FAQ ID -924
Do you have a protocol for purification of total DNA from insects?
FAQ ID -1254
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from sperm?
FAQ ID -909
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
How do I know if my plasmid is a high- or low copy number type?
FAQ ID -350
Can I eliminate RNase A from buffer P1 for my plasmid preparation to obtain RNase-free DNA for in-vitro transcription?
FAQ ID -366
I left Buffer P1 at room temperature after addition of RNase A, what shall I do?
FAQ ID -859
With LyseBlue reagent for lysis control, can I now process more bacterial culture and overload the columns?
FAQ ID -864
What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel?
FAQ ID -1059
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of plasmid DNA from Bacillus subtilis?
FAQ ID -896
What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
Do you have a protocol for obtaining > 20 µg plasmid DNA using the QIAprep Spin Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -3102
Why is my plasmid DNA yield low?
FAQ ID -768
Why do I get genomic DNA contamination in my plasmid prep?
FAQ ID -353
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of plasmid DNA from Agrobacterium?
FAQ ID -898
I am seeing a precipitate after adding LyseBlue reagent to Buffer P1. What should I do about that?
FAQ ID -1045
What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
How much RNA does a typical mammalian cell contain?
FAQ ID -2946
Do I have to discard Buffer RLT with beta-Mercaptoethanol (ß-ME) added to it after 1 month of storage?
FAQ ID -1037
What are the effects of low A260/A230 ratios in RNA preparations on downstream applications?
FAQ ID -2248
Do I need to purchase any consumable for processing the kit on EZ2 Connect?
FAQ ID - 3849
Are we able to customize protocol on the EZ2 Connect?
FAQ ID - 3850
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA/miRNA Tissue/Cells Kit?
FAQ ID - 3851
Can the kit be run on EZ1 instruments?
FAQ ID - 3852
How can I check the integrity of RNA purified using RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -1024
What are the limits of detection of the QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3853
Are all QIAxcel Cartridge Kits compatible with QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3856
What are the differences between QIAxcel Advanced and QIAxcel Connect?
FAQ ID - 3857
What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
Can I combine your CGT dPCR assays with custom designed assays?
FAQ ID - 3861
How many assays can be multiplexed?
FAQ ID - 3862
In which channels can you detect the CGT dPCR assays?
FAQ ID - 3863
How can I resuspend the lyophilized assay?
FAQ ID - 3864
What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
Do I need to use restriction enzymes when quantifying AAV genomes?
FAQ ID - 3866
Can the CGT dPCR assays also be used for the quantification of non-AAV samples?
FAQ ID - 3868
Can I use the CGT dPCR assays for the titer determination of RNA viruses?
FAQ ID - 3869
How do I know if the assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest?
FAQ ID - 3870
Are the assays also compatible with qPCR?
FAQ ID - 3871
Can they be used with lentiviral vectors?
FAQ ID - 3872
Is restriction enzyme digestion required?
FAQ ID - 3875
dPCR results are in copies per microliter. How do I calculate host cell DNA contamination in femtogram per microliter?
FAQ ID - 3876
My samples are highly fragmented. Is the dPCR result for resDNA quantification accurate?
FAQ ID - 3877
Is dPCR sensitive to inhibition?
FAQ ID - 3880
Is DNA extraction from the samples needed?
FAQ ID - 3873
How much sample can I load for detecting host cell contamination?
FAQ ID - 3879
Where can I find a copy of the .kpf file for a BioSprint protocol?
FAQ ID -3073
Can the DyeEx 96 kit be used to clean sequencing reactions to be run on ABI 3730?
FAQ ID -3075
What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
Can the FastLane Cell lysates (containing stabilized RNA, step 8. in Fastlane protocol) be stored?
FAQ ID -3077
Can I use specific primers with the FastLane Kits?
FAQ ID -3078
Can the FastLane RT reaction be incubated longer than 30 min at 42 deg C?
FAQ ID -3079
Does carrier RNA interfere with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome amplification?
FAQ ID -3080
Which SARS-CoV-2 targets can the SARS-CoV-2 Neo Kit detect?
FAQ ID - 3881
Do we have specificity and sensitivity data for this kit?
FAQ ID - 3882
Do we have specificity and sensitivity data for this kit?
FAQ ID - 3883
Is it possible to scale up sample volume and reaction volume?
FAQ ID - 3884
What color channels are used?
FAQ ID - 3885
What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
Anything important when starting the cycler run?
FAQ ID - 3888
Is it possible to use ABI instruments without ROX as a passive reference?
FAQ ID - 3889
What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
Can the SARS-CoV-2 Neo Assay Kit detect all variants?
FAQ ID - 3891
Why did we not choose commonly used genes such as the S gene, E gene, or RdRP?
FAQ ID - 3892
Why did you choose ORF1a+ORF1b and ORF3a+ORF7a?
FAQ ID - 3893
Can I use ROX as passive reference dye with the SARS-CoV-2 Neo assay?
FAQ ID - 3894
Can I use the IC RNA of the QIAprep& Viral RNA UM Kit?
FAQ ID - 3895
Which positive control should I use?
FAQ ID - 3896
How long can eluates be stored after sample preparation using the EZ1 instruments or EZ2 Connect MDx and the EZ1 DSP Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3897
How long can eluates be stored after sample preparation using the EZ1 instruments or EZ2 Connect MDx and the EZ1 DSP DNA Blood Kit?
FAQ ID -1569
Can I use sample preparation cartridges from other suppliers together with the EZ1 instruments or EZ2 Connect MDx?
FAQ ID -1567
How long can blood samples be stored before sample preparation using the EZ1 DSP DNA Blood system?
FAQ ID -1565
Which materials can be used as input samples for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3702
Are there important considerations for plasma generation and urine handling?
FAQ ID - 3699
How stable is Phoenix Hot Start Taq when incubated in a PCR reaction mix at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3898
How can PCR cycling conditions be optimized for Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3899
Can Phoenix Hot Start Taq utilize cDNA as template for PCR?
FAQ ID - 3900
Is Phoenix Hot Start Taq capable of multiplex PCR?
FAQ ID - 3901
How can I optimize Mg2+ conditions for a specific amplicon when using Phoenix Hot Start Taq and the supplied reaction buffer?
FAQ ID - 3902
When should I use Phoenix Hot Start Taq GC reaction Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3903
What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3904
What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
Why is the Phoenix Hot Start Taq sometimes cloudy upon removing from -20°C storage?
FAQ ID - 3906
How can yield for long targets be increased when using Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3907
How is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3908
How can I optimize Mg2+ conditions for a specific amplicon when using VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase and the supplied reaction buffers?
FAQ ID - 3909
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3910
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3911
Why is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase sometimes cloudy upon removing from -20°C storage?
FAQ ID - 3913
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3912
How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3914
Will VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase incorporate dUTP?
FAQ ID - 3915
Is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3916
How long can reaction components incubate with VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature prior to PCR cycling?
FAQ ID - 3917
What denaturation temperature should be used in cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3918
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3919
What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
How can I optimize Mg2+ conditions for a specific amplicon when using VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase and the supplied reaction buffers?
FAQ ID - 3922
How is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3921
When should I use 5X VeraSeq GC Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3923
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3924
What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3926
Will VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase incorporate dUTP?
FAQ ID - 3927
Do the DNA fragments generated by VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase have a single-base 3´ overhang?
FAQ ID - 3928
Is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?
FAQ ID - 3929
What denaturation temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3931
What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?
FAQ ID - 3932
What are the ResDNA Quant Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3878
How can I load new protocols onto the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1421
Are run reports and/or log files available on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1412
What applications are offered on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1403
Can the QIAcube heater/shaker be used independently from protocol runs?
FAQ ID -1422
What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?
FAQ ID -1154
When should the Normalization protocol be used?
FAQ ID -1155
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
Does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal cost money?
FAQ ID - 143077
What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID - 143064 
What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143063
Does QIAGEN provide data analysis to accompany the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID - 143075
How can I extract DNA from a polyacrylamide (PAGE) gel?
FAQ ID -120
Why does my DNA sample float out of the slot when loading it onto an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -205
What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
I bound an 11 kb DNA fragment to a QIAquick column; is it completely lost?
FAQ ID -756
Is it possible to isolate single stranded DNA (ssDNA) with the QIAEX II Kit from agarose or polyacrylamide gels?
FAQ ID -576
Can DNA yields be increased by prolonging incubation with proteinase K in Buffer ATL?
FAQ ID -2032
Can the QIAcube be connected to a laboratory information management system?
FAQ ID -1411
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1407
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
FAQ ID -2337
How can I decontaminate the QIAcube system?
FAQ ID -1419
Can the QIAcube rotor and/or buckets be removed for cleaning?
FAQ ID -1410
Can the QIAcube centrifuge be used independently from protocol runs?
FAQ ID -1423
Do I need to buy special kits for the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1402
Do I need to discard partially used QIAcube tip racks?
FAQ ID -1418
Can I program my own protocols for the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1405
Can the CGT dPCR assays also be used for the analysis of AAV genome integrity?
FAQ ID - 3867
Is the QIAprep&amp CRISPR Kit also applicable to other gene-editing technologies such as TALENs and ZFN?
3787
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of viral RNA from stool?
FAQ ID -918
Which extraction kits are recommended?
FAQ ID - 3874
How long can I store the reconsituted assay regarding QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96) at 4°C?
FAQ ID - 3934
What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
What is the amount of standard for the different kit?
FAQ ID - 3936
How did you calculate the conversion factor?
FAQ ID - 3937
What does the standard kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3938
What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
How long are sample lysates stable in the fridge/ freezer?
FAQ ID - 143765
Can solid samples be processed with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit on the instrument?
FAQ ID -2027
Should sample lysate volumes be exactly 200 µL, 500 µL, or 1000 µL when loaded on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2031
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3940
When should I use the standard vs. the fast protocol for the EZ2 RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3941
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3942
Which version of the EZ2 Connect can run the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3947
When should I use the ‘Standard’ vs. the ‘Fast’ protocol for the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit
FAQ ID - 3948
Are there other options for paraffin removal?
FAQ ID - 3949
What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID - 3950
Why is there a need to overlay the resuspended DNA pellet with PRS again (step 17 of QSP)?
FAQ ID - 3951
An immediate subsequent AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE run does not start right away.
FAQ ID - 3952
Can I use the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit to extract DNA/RNA from fresh frozen tissue?
FAQ ID - 3953
What size of RNA can be expected?
FAQ ID - 3954
Are there specific recommendations for performing RT-PCR on RNA isolated from paraffin-embedded samples?
FAQ ID - 3955
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3956
Why are my DV200 values of my RNA sample so low?
FAQ ID - 3957
The integrity of my DNA sample (e.g. QIAxcel Connect) is bad.
FAQ ID - 3958
How do I proceed if the amount of starting material cannot be calculated in detail?
FAQ ID - 3943
Are there other options for paraffin removal?
FAQ ID - 3946
Are there specific recommendations for performing RT-PCR on RNA isolated from paraffin-embedded samples?
FAQ ID - 3944
My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?
FAQ ID - 3945
Is this available without glycerol?
FAQ ID - 3959
What types of priming are compatible with EnzScript M-MLV RT RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3961
What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H- (P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?
FAQ ID - 3960
What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?
FAQ ID - 3965
Do I need to use Proteinase K in the CGT Viral Vector Lysis Kit? What is the recommended concentration?
FAQ ID - 3971
Do you recommend storage of highly diluted AAV samples?
FAQ ID - 3972
Is it possible to store the lysates? How can the lysates be stored?
FAQ ID - 3973
Can I use MspI or HpaII restriction enzymes from other suppliers?
FAQ ID - 3975
How many AAV genome copies can I load into the QIAcuity?
FAQ ID - 3977
Do you need to dilute the lysates before setting up the PCR mix?
FAQ ID - 3978

How do I know if the CGT dPCR assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest?
FAQ ID - 3980

Are the CGT dPCR assays also compatible with qPCR?
FAQ ID - 3981

Can the CGT Viral Vector Lysis kit be used with assays of other suppliers or custom designed assays?
FAQ ID - 3982

What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
Is the QIAxcel Advanced discontinued?
FAQ ID - 3983

What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID - 3985

What water should I use to prepare the buffer concentrates?
FAQ ID - 3986

What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987

Are the QIAwave kits based on a different chemistry than the legacy kits?
FAQ ID - 3990

Is there a way to compare the environmental impacts of the kit?
FAQ ID - 3991

Can the QIAwave kits be recycled?
FAQ ID - 3992
Does the reuse of the Waste Tubes increase the risk of cross-contamination?
FAQ ID - 3988

I don’t have any glassware in the lab, is the QIAwave kit still a good option for me?
FAQ ID - 3989

Is the Reagent Bottle Rack, Grey, QC2 (cat. no. 9026197) compatible with the QIAcube Classic instrument?
FAQ ID - 3993
Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?
FAQ ID - 3994
My samples are expected to have low concentrations. Can I load more sample into the workflow or more lysate into the PCR reaction?
FAQ ID - 3995
Can I use Internal Control as overall control?
FAQ ID - 3996
How long can I store the reconstituted Internal Control and the reconstituted Positive Control?
FAQ ID - 3997
Do you recommend storage of highly diluted mycoplasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3998
What are the major differences between QIAseq Targeted RNA Panel TCR kit and previous QIAseq Immune Repertoire RNA library kit?
FAQ ID - 3999
On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?
FAQ ID -2719
Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2569
Investigator Quantiplex: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or 7500 Fast Real-Time PCR System?
FAQ ID -2571
Which human target is used for the quantification in the Investigator Quantiplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2577
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: On which real-time cyclers is the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit validated?
FAQ ID - 3728
Investigator Quantiplex and Quantiplex Pro: What do I have to consider if I am using Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3?
FAQ ID -2570
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3730
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3743
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID - 3742
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or QuantStudio 5 Real-Time PCR System?
FAQ ID - 3732
How long does a run take?
FAQ ID -2566
Investigator Quantiplex: For which real-time cyclers has the kit been validated?
FAQ ID -2567
What are the storage conditions?
FAQ ID - 3748
Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Rotor Gene-Q software can be used to run the kit?
FAQ ID -2568
How can I streamline the quantification workflow?
FAQ ID - 3738
Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Can the kit be run on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID - 3729
Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: On which real-time cyclers is the kit validated?
FAQ ID - 3741
Can I optimize a dPCR assay on the QIAcuity using gradient temperature?
FAQ ID - 3783
Are TaqMan® Gene Expression Assays from Applied Biosystems compatible with Rotor-Gene Probe Kits?
FAQ ID -2126
Are probes other than TaqMan® probes, such as FRET probes, compatible with fast cycling with the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2130
Are TaqMan® Gene Expression Assays from Applied Biosystems compatible with the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2131
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
Can I use REPLI-g for SNP Genotyping?
FAQ ID -700
Can other probe technologies besides TaqMan® be used with the Type-it Fast SNP Probe PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2058
What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3506
Can the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be used with hybridization probes?
FAQ ID -2595
Can I use the QuantiTect Multiplex PCR Kits on the Roche LightCycler systems with TaqMan® probes or QuantiTect Assays?
FAQ ID -717
Can the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits be used on Roche LightCycler systems with TaqMan® probes?
FAQ ID -1979
Are TaqMan® Gene Expression Assays from Applied Biosystems compatible with QuantiFast Probe PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1452
How is "Touchdown PCR" used to increase PCR specificity?
FAQ ID -75
What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
Why do I get smeared PCR products?
FAQ ID -87
Does QIAGEN sell Q-Solution separately?
FAQ ID -204
Do CoralLoad dyes supplied in various QIAGEN PCR Kits interfere with downstream applications?
FAQ ID -1745
Is Q-Solution required for PCR with QIAGEN's PCR kits?
FAQ ID -380
Have you tested the effect of inhibitors on PCR performance?
FAQ ID -818
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
Do you have to use a restriction enzyme to relieve ITR secondary structures and increase target accessibility?
FAQ ID - 3974
What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
Can I use the lysate from the CGT Viral Vector Lysis kit and combine it with another PCR system?
FAQ ID - 3979

Do you have any recommendations on how to process my AAV samples?
FAQ ID - 3860
What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly?
FAQ ID -1834
How do I safely inactivate biohazardous flow-through material?
FAQ ID -12
How should I store plant material for DNA isolation using the DNeasy Plant Kit?
FAQ ID -114
How can I precipitate genomic DNA using isopropanol?
FAQ ID -2953
How do I perform a DNA precipitation to concentrate my sample?
FAQ ID -305
What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA?
FAQ ID -728
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
Do I need to have EDTA in the buffer in which I am going to store my isolated genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -754
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of DNA from tofu?
FAQ ID -932
Does the Epitect Bisulfite Kit also work on DNA extracted from plants?
FAQ ID -1209
What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
After bisulfite conversion, can the DNA be stored?
FAQ ID -2409
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