Product FAQ - QIAGEN



Product FAQ Bookmark Share more.. You are not authorized to download the resource Sort options Sort alphabetically Sort by relevance How can samples be shipped and stored prior to extraction on the Autopure LS? FAQ ID - 3522 View How can samples be shipped and stored prior to extraction on the Autopure LS? FAQ ID - 3528 View How can the QIAsymphony SP system be decontaminated? FAQ ID -1914 View How can we get our BioRobot EZ1 upgraded when new protocols are launched? FAQ ID -1241 View How can yield for long targets be increased when using Phoenix Hot Start Taq? FAQ ID - 3907 View How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3914 View How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3926 View How comparable is CoralLoad gel loading dye contained in various QIAGEN PCR Kits to Sigma Red? FAQ ID -1644 View How complete is the removal of DAPase in the TAGZyme process? FAQ ID -319 View How critical is the time of the temperature change from 60°C to 80°C? FAQ ID - 143768 View How did you calculate the conversion factor? FAQ ID - 3937 View How did you determine that your AllStar Negative Control siRNA binds to RISC? FAQ ID -1180 View How do I analyze codon 61 mutations with the RAS extension kit (cat. no. 971590)? FAQ ID - 3622 View How do I analyze the data for the particular iPSC qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered? FAQ ID -2440 View How do I calculate the percentage of silencing with real-time RT-PCR for siRNA? FAQ ID -498 View How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2761 View How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies? FAQ ID -2746 View How do I clean up RNA preparations containing miRNA? FAQ ID -3002 View How do I create a workspace that is free of DNA contamination, prior to carrying out a qPCR experiment? FAQ ID -2654 View How do I determine if my gene expression results are statistically significant in the REST software? FAQ ID -2458 View How do I determine the amplification efficiency of my qPCR assay? FAQ ID -2694 View How do I determine the linear dynamic range of my qPCR or qRT-PCR assay? FAQ ID -2696 View How do I find the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids for my gene of interest? FAQ ID -2883 View How do I get started using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits? FAQ ID -2413 View How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed with the NexTal Cubic Phase products? FAQ ID -2330 View How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed? FAQ ID -2422 View How do I insert and replace an absorber strip into the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep chamber? FAQ ID - 3691 View How do I know if my plasmid is a high- or low copy number type? FAQ ID -350 View How do I know if the assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest? FAQ ID - 3870 View How do I know if the CGT dPCR assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest? FAQ ID - 3980 View How do I know in which phase of my NeXtal CubicPhase cristallisation experiment I am? FAQ ID -2421 View How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected? FAQ ID -3135 View How do I obtain the concentration of my gDNA from the data analysis using the GeneRead DNA QuantiMIZE? FAQ ID - 3530 View How do I perform a DNA precipitation to concentrate my sample? FAQ ID -305 View How do I perform an Acetone Precipitation for concentrating and desalting protein samples? FAQ ID -1035 View How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade? FAQ ID -3163 View How do I prepare an insert for pQE vectors? FAQ ID -185 View How do I prepare Buffer MP? FAQ ID - 3620 View How do I prevent a drifting baseline in my pyrosequencing pyrogram? If this method cannot be selected automatically in the application software, you can download the method/code file from the instrument webpage. FAQ ID -2878 View How do I prevent bubbles from forming in my Ni-NTA agarose column? FAQ ID -285 View How do I proceed if the amount of starting material cannot be calculated in detail? FAQ ID - 3943 View How do I reduce background peaks in the pyrosequencing pyrogram? FAQ ID -2877 View How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA? FAQ ID -3133 View How do I resuspend my FlexiPlate siRNAs? FAQ ID -1360 View How do I safely inactivate biohazardous flow-through material? FAQ ID -12 View How do I search for all the miScript Target Protectors for one species? FAQ ID -2255 View How do I set up a PyroMark CpG Assay? FAQ ID -2814 View How do I store my FlexiTube siRNA Premix? FAQ ID -2270 View How do I submit a siRNA order by telephone or online? FAQ ID -399 View How do I use EasyXtal Crystallization Tools? FAQ ID -1105 View How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2923 View How do QuantiFast PCR Kits compare to QuantiTect PCR Kits for quantitative real-time PCR? FAQ ID -1441 View How do Rotor-Gene Probe Kits compare with QuantiFast Probe Kits? FAQ ID -2125 View How do the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit and QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination? FAQ ID -783 View How do Unique Molecular Indexes (UMIs) improve quantification? FAQ ID - 3669 View How do you achieve fast cycling, yet still deliver the same performance in PCR as that achieved with standard cycling? FAQ ID -1430 View How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays? FAQ ID — 3420 View How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays? FAQ ID -2913 View How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR? FAQ ID -2749 View How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array? FAQ ID -2701 View How do you ensure that concentrated RNA is purified from saliva using the RNeasy Protect Saliva Mini Kit? FAQ ID -1212 View How do you ensure that RNeasy buffers are RNase-free? FAQ ID -113 View How does a Service Support Agreement provide defined budgeting for maintaining my BioRobot? FAQ ID -1330 View How does HotStart PCR help minimize nonspecific amplification events? FAQ ID -2676 View How does imidazole affect my quantitation of protein? FAQ ID -132 View How does magnetic-particle carry-over in QIAsymphony eluates need to be handled? FAQ ID -2166 View How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays? FAQ ID -2711 View How does QIAseq FastSelect work? FAQ ID -147907 View How does QIAsymphony SP keep cellular samples in suspension prior to pipetting so that samples do not settle? FAQ ID -1905 View How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work? FAQ ID -2779 View How does template quality influence the results with the Type-it HRM PCR Kit? FAQ ID -2197 View How does the built-in QC control for complete bisulfite conversion of DNA work on PyroMark Q24? FAQ ID -2095 View How does the DNA Protection work in the EpitTect Bisulfite kits? FAQ ID -2410 View How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work? FAQ ID -2341 View How does the liquid level detection work and what is the minimal detectable volume for the conductive tips of the BioRobot Universal? FAQ ID - 3524 View How does the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination? FAQ ID -2354 View How does the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit prevent traces of phenol from negatively affecting the reverse-transcription step in microarray experiments? FAQ ID -2189 View How does the sealing efficiency of the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool compare to grease? FAQ ID -1109 View How does the stabilizing reagent in the PAXgene Saliva Collector stabilize saliva? 3814 View How easy is it to scoop up a protein crystal with the lip around the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tools? FAQ ID -1113 View How efficient is DNA removal by a gDNA Eliminator 96 plate compared with DNase digestion on an RNeasy 96 plate? FAQ ID -1994 View How fast does the rotor spin during a run on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -2080 View How fast is the 6xHis-tagged protein purification process using Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges? FAQ ID -1605 View How great is the enrichment of miRNA when using the dedicated PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit compared to the PAXgene Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID -2495 View How important is the RNA purification process, for obtaining reliable qRT-PCR results? FAQ ID -2655 View How is "Touchdown PCR" used to increase PCR specificity? FAQ ID -75 View How is an antibody epitope determined? FAQ ID -593 View How is ARMS technology superior to alternative methods such as dye terminator sequencing? FAQ ID -2290 View How is stability and performance of these mericon Assay kits guaranteed? FAQ ID -2542 View How is the hypothesis test performed in the REST software? FAQ ID -2459 View How is the log graph threshold value (Ct) for the Rotor-Gene Q determined? FAQ ID -2088 View How is the Pyromark Q48 cartridge to be cleaned? FAQ ID - 3718 View How is the quality of proteins purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed and stabilized tissue? FAQ ID - 3619 View How is the quality of the crystallization condition Screening Suites guaranteed? FAQ ID -1126 View How is the RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini Kit different from the RNeasy Mini Kit? FAQ ID -468 View How is the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit different from the classic RNeasy Mini Kit? FAQ ID -2192 View How is the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit different from the RNeasy Plus Kit? FAQ ID -2340 View How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination? FAQ ID -3154 View How is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3908 View How is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3921 View How long after first use can a reagent cartridge be stored for further use? FAQ ID - 3650 View How long and at which temperature can plasma generated from whole blood in PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored? FAQ ID - 3644 View How long are sample lysates stable in the fridge/ freezer? FAQ ID - 143765 View How long can a reagent cartridge remain open without affecting my results? FAQ ID - 3706 View How long can a tissue specimen stay in the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER? FAQ ID -3028 View How long can DNA converted with EpiTect Bisulfite Kits be stored before use in methylation specific PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit? FAQ ID -2002 View How long can eluates be stored after sample preparation using the EZ1 instruments or EZ2 Connect MDx and the EZ1 DSP Virus Kit? FAQ ID - 3897 View How long can homogenates remain on the QIAsymphony SP without risk of RNA degradation? FAQ ID -1941 View How long can I archive cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1623 View How long can I store an RLT lysate? FAQ ID -3115 View How long can I store bacterial culture stabilized in RNAprotect Bacteria Reagent? FAQ ID -614 View How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit? FAQ ID -2350 View How long can I store the dilutions of the Control DNA Z1 standards at 2°C? -8 View How long can I store the dilutions of the Male Control DNA M1 standards at 2–8°C? FAQ ID - 3744 View How long can I store the reconsituted assay regarding QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96) at 4°C? FAQ ID - 3934 View How long can I store the reconstituted Internal Control and the reconstituted Positive Control? FAQ ID - 3997 View How long can primer and probes from the mericon Assay kits be kept at°C once reconstituted? -20 View How long can reaction components incubate with VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature prior to PCR cycling? FAQ ID - 3917 View How long can saliva in PAXgene Saliva Collector tubes be stored at room temperature? 3815 View How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at 2–8°C? FAQ ID - 3379 View How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3378 View How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3508 View How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature? FAQ ID - 3492 View How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C? FAQ ID - 3463 View How long can whole blood stabilized in PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3639 View How long does a QuantiFast Pathogen + IC run take on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -2452 View How long does a run take? FAQ ID -2566 View How long does a saliva collection take? 3804 View How long does a single run on the PyroMark Q24 take? FAQ ID -2096 View How long does a typical in vitro translation reaction take with your large-scale EasyXpress protein synthesis kits? FAQ ID -880 View How long does it take to generate results using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits? FAQ ID -2299 View How long does it take to set up a 96-well plate PCR reaction on the QIAgility? FAQ ID -3066 View How long does the sample disruption with the TissueLyser LT take? FAQ ID -2550 View How long is cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1613 View How long is fluorescence detectable in cells after transfection with fluorescently labeled siRNAs? FAQ ID -392 View How long is the fixation time when using PAXgene Tissue FIX Container? FAQ ID -3026 View How long is the fixation time? FAQ ID -2519 View How long should I wait after transfection before enriching my transfected cells, validating knock down, and looking for phenotypic changes? FAQ ID -2893 View How long should PCR fragments be for the SeqTarget System? FAQ ID -2236 View How long should the amplicon be if I am using QuantiTect SYBR Green detection? FAQ ID -553 View How long will the intensity calibration procedure on the QIAxcel System take? FAQ ID -1826 View How magnetically responsive is BioMag? FAQ ID -265 View How many AAV genome copies can I load into the QIAcuity? FAQ ID - 3977 View How many assays can be multiplexed? FAQ ID - 3862 View How many cells can be used with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit? FAQ ID -796 View How many cells can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit, and how much mitochondrial protein can be expected? FAQ ID -1189 View How many CpG sites are analyzed by the PyroMark CpG LINE assay? 2858 View How many different genes and gene mutations are on a Somatic Mutation PCR Array? FAQ ID -2427 View How many drops can be set up on a protein crystallization support? FAQ ID -1110 View How many elution steps are recommended when using Glutathione Superflow resin? FAQ ID -2175 View How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2769 View How many extractions can I perform with a QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit, using the 2.4 ml or the 4.8 ml protocols? FAQ ID - 3649 View How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate? FAQ ID -2975 View How many freeze-thaw cycles can the master mix contained in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit tolerate? FAQ ID -2357 View How many freeze-thaw cycles can the various reaction mixes in the EasyXpress Insect Kit II tolerate? FAQ ID -1219 View How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array? FAQ ID -2704 View How many LiquiChip beads are recommended for an xMAP experiment? FAQ ID -1161 View How many miScript Precursor Assays do you offer? FAQ ID -2213 View How many molecules can be detected in the system? 153926 View How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array? FAQ ID -2911 View How many nucleotides of a homopolymer can be resolved in pyrosequencing? FAQ ID -2871 View How many PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes can be processed per PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit well plate? FAQ ID -2485 View How many PCR reactions can be performed for different scales of miScript Primer Assays? FAQ ID -1990 View How many protein crystallization conditions are available at QIAGEN? FAQ ID -1119 View How many reactions can be performed per well of the QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates? FAQ ID -2107 View How many reactions can be performed with one QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? FAQ ID -2955 View How many reactions can I perform with the new QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR? FAQ ID -1425 View How many reporter dyes can be used in the same analysis using the LiquiChip Workstation? FAQ ID -738 View How many samples can be processed per kit or per reagent cartridge for RNA purification on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1940 View How many samples can be processed per RNeasy Mini QIAcube kit? FAQ ID -2332 View How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit? FAQ ID - 3477 View How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit? FAQ ID -2490 View How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DNA Mini Kit and the Virus Blood 200 protocol? FAQ ID -2159 View How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits? FAQ ID -2935 View How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID -2497 View How many samples can be run in parallel with the Rotor-Gene Q real-time PCR instrument? FAQ ID -1519 View How many signal readings are taken during the real-time data acquisition on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -2083 View How many template copies can I detect using QuantiTect Kits in real-time PCR? FAQ ID -543 View How many times can the cartridges for PyroMark Q24 or PyroMark Q96 ID instruments be reused? FAQ ID -2863 View How many times can the CDTs, NDTs, and RDTs be used? FAQ ID -2865 View How many times can the Internal Controls used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be freeze-thawed? FAQ ID -2599 View How many times can vacuum troughs be reused with the PyroMark Vacuum Preparation Stations? FAQ ID -2848 View How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs? FAQ ID -3105 View How many transfections can I perform with 20 nmol of HPP grade siRNA? FAQ ID -367 View How much active protein can be expressed in-vitro using the EasyXpress Insect Kit II, and how much time does it take? FAQ ID -1222 View How much buffer should be used for agarose gel electrophoresis? FAQ ID -2257 View How much can the mixed standard ?Ct values vary in the KRAS PCR kit? FAQ ID -2307 View How much cDNA is sufficient for real-time PCR detection of miRNA transcripts generated with the miScript System? FAQ ID -1598 View How much circulating cell-free DNA can I expect from samples, and how can I quantify the yield? FAQ ID - 3704 View How much detection reagent do you generally recommend for LiquiChip Assays? FAQ ID -1159 View How much DNA and RNA can be expected from human blood cells? FAQ ID -2950 View How much DNA does a bacterial cell contain? FAQ ID -2947 View How much DNA does a human cell contain? FAQ ID -2948 View How much DNA is needed in the PyroMark Q48? FAQ ID - 3721 View How much DNA is obtained in the average PCR reaction? FAQ ID -750 View How much DNA should be loaded per well of an agarose gel? FAQ ID -2259 View How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay? FAQ ID — 3418 View How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array? FAQ ID — 3417 View How much DNA starting sample is needed for analysis with a Somatic Mutations PCR Array? And Assay? FAQ ID -2431 View How much DNA/RNA can be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit? FAQ ID -2353 View How much dye-labeled siRNA should I use to monitor transfection efficiency when using HiPerfect Transfection Reagent? FAQ ID -1058 View How much protein can be produced with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Mega Kit? FAQ ID -843 View How much protein does one vial of Protease in the QIAamp spin kits contain? What is the concentration of the resuspended Protease? FAQ ID - 3520 View How much REPLI-g amplified mitochondrial DNA should be used in a subsequent PCR reaction? FAQ ID -1320 View How much RNA does a bacterial cell contain? FAQ ID -2949 View How much RNA does a typical mammalian cell contain? FAQ ID -2946 View How much sample can be used with the Allprep DNA/RNA 96 Kit? FAQ ID -1997 View How much sample can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit? FAQ ID -1992 View How much sample can I load for detecting host cell contamination? FAQ ID - 3879 View How much sample is required for each well for an ELISArray Kit? FAQ ID -2908 View How much sample material can I use for DNA/RNA purification with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit? FAQ ID -2351 View How much solution can I add to an EasyXtal 15-Well Tool reservoir well? FAQ ID -1114 View How much space does the PyroMark Q24 instrument need? FAQ ID -2098 View How much space does the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep instrument need? FAQ ID - 3693 View How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1917 View How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2927 View How much template can I use in the reaction and what is the maximum volume of template that can be used in the QuantiTect Kits? FAQ ID -1086 View How much time can be saved when using the RNeasy Mini QIAcube Kit? FAQ ID -2335 View How much time is needed for a LiquiChip assay point measurement? FAQ ID -1162 View How much time may the aspirated bone marrow sample be allowed to incubate before pipetting it into the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube? FAQ ID -2504 View How much time will be saved when switching from standard cycling to fast cycling with QuantiFast Kits? FAQ ID -1438 View How often can the Strep-Tactin Superflow Plus resin be reused? FAQ ID -2169 View How often should the alignment marker for the QIAxcel System be changed? FAQ ID -1839 View How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip adapter be changed on the QIAcube Connect? FAQ ID - 141509 View How often should the solutions in the Buffer Tray for the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced be replaced? FAQ ID -1840 View How precise is the QIAgility? FAQ ID -3063 View How pure are the CTCs enriched from blood samples using the AdnaTest? 3831 View How pure should my protein be with the NexTal CubicPhase kits? FAQ ID -2414 View How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit be? FAQ ID -2193 View How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit be? FAQ ID -2344 View How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays? FAQ ID -2730 View How sensitive is the LiquiChip Reader? FAQ ID -1157 View How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored? FAQ ID - 3585 View How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be transported? FAQ ID - 3375 View How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped? FAQ ID - 3489 View How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be transported? FAQ ID - 3507 View How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored? FAQ ID - 3490 View How should data be analyzed when the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit is used with miScript miRNA PCR Arrays or miScript Primer Assays? FAQ ID - 3581 View How should DNA isolated on the QIAsymphony be stored? FAQ ID -2165 View How should DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System be stored? FAQ ID - 3502 View How should eluates produced with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA System be stored? FAQ ID - 3657 View How should fluorescent labeled probes be stored? FAQ ID -784 View How should frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be thawed? FAQ ID - 3586 View How should gels be cast with the GelPilot Agarose so that optimal resolution is achieved? FAQ ID -2258 View How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment? FAQ ID — 3421 View How should I dissolve the lyophilized Anti-His and Tag Antibodies? -100 View How should I prepare buffy coat samples for use on the BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -1249 View How should I propagate pQE expression plasmids? FAQ ID -58 View How should I quantify RNA isolated with RNeasy Kits? FAQ ID -32 View How should I reconstitute the lyophilized RNase-Free DNase Set with the RNeasy 96 kit? FAQ ID -3003 View How should I store Anti·His and Tag·100 Antibodies? FAQ ID -194 View How should I store cDNA produced using Omniscript Reverse Transcriptase? FAQ ID -561 View How should I store plant material for DNA isolation using the DNeasy Plant Kit? FAQ ID -114 View How should I store the REPLI-g amplification product? FAQ ID -692 View How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes? FAQ ID - 3495 View How should I thaw frozen plasma samples? FAQ ID - 3645 View How should QIAGEN Plasmid Purification Kits be stored and for how long? FAQ ID -192 View How should RNeasy Kits be stored and how long are they stable? FAQ ID -103 View How should samples be stored before purification using the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony? FAQ ID -2157 View How should the GelPilot DNA Loading Dye be handled? FAQ ID -1287 View How should the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tubes be frozen after collection and for how long? FAQ ID -2505 View How should the samples be stored before purification of RNA with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol? FAQ ID -2984 View How should the samples be stored before purification with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits? FAQ ID -2934 View How should unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored? FAQ ID - 3634 View How should unused PAXgene Saliva Collector be stored? 3812 View How stable is Phoenix Hot Start Taq when incubated in a PCR reaction mix at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3898 View How to prepare DNA prior to dPCR? 3778 View How to quantitate DNA purified using the BioSprint 96? FAQ ID -773 View How to store DNA from forensic samples eluted into water on the EZ1 biorobot in TE buffer instead? FAQ ID -734 View How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage? FAQ ID -3103 View How was it determined that the PhosphoSerine Antibody will bind phosphoserines only? FAQ ID -579 View How well is DNA integrity preserved in PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3612 View How well is RNA integrity preserved in PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3611 View How will running less than 96 samples with the MagAttract 96 cador Pathogen kit affect usage of plasticware? FAQ ID -2071 View How will service work carried out on my QIAGEN BioRobot be documented? FAQ ID -1331 View How would I provide information on the QuantiTect Primer assays in publications when the sequence is confidential? FAQ ID - 3593 View I accidentally added RNAprotect Tissue Reagent to my cells, and now the cells are difficult to pellet. What can I do? FAQ ID -364 View I accidentally stored Buffer RDD of the RNase-Free DNase Set at°C. Will it still function? -20 View I am seeing a precipitate after adding LyseBlue reagent to Buffer P1. What should I do about that? FAQ ID -1045 View I am using an RNA library prep kit that is not listed in the QIAseq FastSelect handbook. Will QIAseq FastSelect work with my kit? FAQ ID -147913 View I bound an 11 kb DNA fragment to a QIAquick column; is it completely lost? FAQ ID -756 View I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do? FAQ ID - 3363 View I cannot see the LCD display fonts on the Sigma Centrifuge. How do I adjust the contrast? FAQ ID -822 View I do not see any miRNA expression for my miRNAs of interest after performing single cell miRNA expression analysis with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit and miScript miRNA PCR Arrays or miScript Primer Assays. What could be the cause? FAQ ID - 3577 View I don’t have any glassware in the lab, is the QIAwave kit still a good option for me? FAQ ID - 3989 View I have a Human Druggable Genome siRNA Set V2.0. Can I reorder the siRNAs from this set? FAQ ID -1366 View I have accidentally pipetted beads when removing the eluate after cDNA cleanup. What should I do? FAQ ID - 3572 View I left Buffer P1 at room temperature after addition of RNase A, what shall I do? FAQ ID -859 View I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license? FAQ ID - 3472 View I ran my RNA out on an agarose gel and can see lots of bands similar to a ladder. Why? FAQ ID -745 View I received a kit containing the MinElute columns; however, they were left out for a while and not stored at 2–8°C upon receipt. Can I still use them? FAQ ID - 3560 View I routinely heat an aliquot of the RNA eluate prior to my RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the eluate after the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA preparation? FAQ ID -2513 View I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit? FAQ ID -2342 View I used to buy BioMag particles from a company by another name? Are your BioMag particles the same thing? FAQ ID -263 View I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use? FAQ ID -3116 View I want to start with gene silencing (RNAi) experiments. Do you have informational literature? FAQ ID -580 View I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible? FAQ ID -2360 View I would like to sequence my siRNA constructs. Does QIAGEN offer Sequencing Services for cloned siRNA? FAQ ID -829 View I would like to stop during the library preparation procedure. When can I do that? FAQ ID - 3687 View I would like to use the kit on another third party instrument. Who should I contact? 3803 View If 400 µl are used as lysis volume, how do I concentrate the lysate? (Otherwise the DNA would be too diluted.) FAQ ID - 143766 View If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed? FAQ ID -2977 View If a QuantiTect Primer Assay has more than one version number, does this mean that earlier assay versions may not work? FAQ ID -1136 View If both MaXtract Low Density and High Density is suitable for an application, which type is preferable to use? FAQ ID -1310 View If FlexiPlate siRNA was accidentally redissolved in siRNA Suspension Buffer instead of water, resulting in a 2x buffer, would it affect performance of the siRNAs? FAQ ID -1477 View If housekeeping and target genes differ significantly in abundance, will they both be amplified with equal efficiency using the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit? FAQ ID -2129 View If I am using BioMag Streptavidin to capture biotinylated oligos, how can I then remove the oligos? FAQ ID -279 View If I am working with a difficult-to-transfect cell type or if I obtain only weak silencing effects what can I do? FAQ ID -2265 View If I cannot find a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my target gene in rat, can I use the assays for the orthologous genes in mouse and human? FAQ ID -1145 View If I cannot order FlexiPlate siRNA online, how do I order? FAQ ID -1371 View If I want to use BioMag particles, do I have to buy a QIAGEN magnet too or can I use one that I already have? FAQ ID -266 View If less than 48/96 samples are being processed, is it possible to leave positions empty with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit? FAQ ID -2492 View If new dyes or chemistries appear on the real-time PCR market, will Rotor-Gene Q be capable of running those dyes? FAQ ID -2087 View If orders cannot be placed online, how can QIAgenes be ordered? FAQ ID -2046 View If pQE40 is used to express a fusion protein with DHFR, can the DHFR be cleaved afterwards? FAQ ID -513 View If template abundance differs significantly between housekeeping and target gene, are both amplified equally efficient with the QuantiTect Multiplex Kits? FAQ ID -718 View If the M500 method is used with the QIAxcel System, does a new DNA reference marker table have to be created? FAQ ID -1856 View If Vapor-Lock is used to overlay PCR reactions, which volume should be entered as reaction volume in the Rotor-Gene Q Software? FAQ ID -2150 View In the REST software, what is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on the 'Results' page? FAQ ID -2455 View In the results table generated with the QIAxcel System, what does "normalized area" mean? FAQ ID -1854 View In which channels can you detect the CGT dPCR assays? FAQ ID - 3863 View In which format can PyroMark CpG Assays be ordered? FAQ ID -2824 View In which formats are crystallization condition Screening Suites available? FAQ ID -1127 View In which solution can I keep my protein for the NexTal Cubic Phase kits? FAQ ID -2416 View In which tubes is clot detection possible on QIAsymphony? FAQ ID - 3589 View Investigator Quantiplex and Quantiplex Pro: What do I have to consider if I am using Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3? FAQ ID -2570 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: On which real-time cyclers is the kit validated? FAQ ID - 3741 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit? FAQ ID - 3743 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the kit? FAQ ID - 3742 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Can the kit be run on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID - 3729 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or QuantStudio 5 Real-Time PCR System? FAQ ID - 3732 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro: On which real-time cyclers is the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit validated? FAQ ID - 3728 View Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit? FAQ ID - 3730 View Investigator Quantiplex: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or 7500 Fast Real-Time PCR System? FAQ ID -2571 View Investigator Quantiplex: For which real-time cyclers has the kit been validated? FAQ ID -2567 View Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex? FAQ ID -2569 View Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Rotor Gene-Q software can be used to run the kit? FAQ ID -2568 View Is 2 kb the minimal gDNA fragment size for REPLI-g Whole Genome Amplification? FAQ ID -682 View Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the QIAquant to obtain reproducible results? 153920 View Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the Rotor-Gene Q to obtain reproducible results? FAQ ID -2079 View Is a restriction digest necessary for DNA isolated from PAXgene Saliva samples before performing a dPCR run using the QIAcuity? 3829 View Is a saliva collection device provided in the RNeasy Protect Saliva Mini Kit? FAQ ID -1213 View Is a special processing protocol needed? FAQ ID -2523 View Is a special processing protocol needed? FAQ ID -3035 View Is a standard curve needed in dPCR? 3786 View Is an additional proteinase K digest possible with DNeasy PowerSoil Kit and DNeasy PowerLyzer Kit? FAQ ID - 3725 View Is cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for use in microarray analysis? FAQ ID -1587 View Is clot detection possible on the QIAsymphony? FAQ - ID 3588 View Is dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) immunogenic? FAQ ID -471 View Is DNA extraction from the samples needed? FAQ ID - 3873 View Is double centrifugation required for plasma processing? FAQ ID - 3643 View Is dPCR sensitive to inhibition? FAQ ID - 3880 View Is Factor SB of the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit the same as Factor MP of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Kit? FAQ ID -1049 View Is FlexiTube GeneSolution available for other scales than the 1 nmol scale? FAQ ID -1666 View Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? FAQ ID -2959 View Is GFP excited and detected by the green laser of the LiquiChip System? FAQ ID -737 View Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector? FAQ ID -2783 View Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit? FAQ ID -2348 View Is it good to pool multiple RNA replicates to detect expression changes that are consistently reproducible? FAQ ID -2663 View Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue? FAQ ID -3034 View Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue? FAQ ID - 3607 View Is it necessary to clean up cDNA prepared with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1610 View Is it necessary to include a genomic DNA removal step with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1614 View Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers? FAQ ID -2373 View Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube Connect? FAQ ID - 141496 View Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube? FAQ ID -1415 View Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube? 148736 View Is it necessary to reanalyze a plate with VPF (Volume Precision Factor) that was already processed using a QIAcuity instrument that was purchased in 2020? 3771 View Is it normal that the binding capacity of GST-resins decreases with flow rate? FAQ ID -2174 View Is it possible to adjust the Lysis Buffer volume used with the Qproteome Bacterial Protein Preparation Kit? FAQ ID -841 View Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue blocks? FAQ ID -2524 View Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3038 View Is it possible to buy the EZ Competent Cells of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Plus Kit separately? FAQ ID -763 View Is it possible to change voltage set-up from 110V to 230V on the QIAcuity instruments? 3761 View Is it possible to clean up a methylation reaction containing bisulfite with QIAquick Cleanup Kits? FAQ ID -519 View Is it possible to cleave the 6xHis-tag from an expressed protein? FAQ ID -140 View Is it possible to collect intact mitochondria before or after the density gradient centrifugation step of the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation protocol? FAQ ID -1187 View Is it possible to edit the sample sheet after the run in the QIAquant Software? 153955 View Is it possible to edit the sample sheet in the Rotor-Gene Q software after a PCR run? FAQ ID -2092 View Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA from the QIAprep Spin Miniprep columns with buffer containing Potassium Phosphate? FAQ ID -854 View Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA obtained with the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit in nuclease-free water? FAQ ID -1355 View Is it possible to embed PAXgene Tissue fixed and stabilized samples in Optimal Cutting Temperature (OCT) medium for freezing? FAQ ID -2525 View Is it possible to establish an internet connection with QIAquant instrument? 153952 View Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood? FAQ ID -3119 View Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood? FAQ ID -3120 View Is it possible to fix over a weekend? FAQ ID -3027 View Is it possible to get a Custom RT2 Profiler PCR Array, cat. # 330131, with primer assays targeting transcripts of different species, e.g. assays targeting transcripts from mouse and assays targeting transcripts from human, on one plate? FAQ ID - 3710 View Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous PCR run on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -2093 View Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous run? 153947 View Is it possible to increase nucleic acid concentrations when following protocols on the BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -1232 View Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into the processing? FAQ ID -3037 View Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into tissue processing? FAQ ID - 3608 View Is it possible to interrupt the PAXgene Blood DNA kit protocol? FAQ ID - 3503 View Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit? FAQ ID -2972 View Is it possible to isolate both RNA and recombinant 6xHis-tagged protein from the same sample? FAQ ID -532 View Is it possible to isolate DNA from bone marrow with the QIAamp DNA Blood Kits? FAQ ID -563 View Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent? FAQ ID -2995 View Is it possible to isolate free genomic DNA using the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit? FAQ ID -358 View Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol? FAQ ID - 3483 View Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol? FAQ ID - 3476 View Is it possible to isolate single stranded DNA (ssDNA) with the QIAEX II Kit from agarose or polyacrylamide gels? FAQ ID -576 View Is it possible to manually process PAXgene Tissue treated samples without using an automated processor? FAQ ID -3036 View Is it possible to measure the proteolytic activity of proteins on the surface of exosomes that were isolated with ExoEasy? FAQ ID - 3599 View Is it possible to microdissect PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissues? FAQ ID -2531 View Is it possible to modify QIAsymphony protocols? FAQ ID -1903 View Is it possible to modify the transduction protocol for Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays to save some pipetting steps? FAQ ID - 3709 View Is it possible to normalize to more or less than 500 ng with the SeqTarget System if needed? FAQ ID -2235 View Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times? FAQ ID -3124 View Is it possible to perform a UNG treatment when using QuantiTect kits? FAQ ID -564 View Is it possible to perform immunoprecipitation (IP) directly on protein fractions from the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit? FAQ ID -855 View Is it possible to perform laser microdissection with tissues stabilized with RNAprotect Tissue reagent? FAQ ID -608 View Is it possible to place the PAXgene Saliva Collector tube directly on the QIAsymphony SP instrument sample rack? 3825 View Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run? FAQ ID -3033 View Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run? FAQ ID - 3606 View Is it possible to process volumes of saliva from the PAXgene Saliva Collector other than the 400 or 1000 µl from the standard protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Midi Kit using the QIAsymphony SP instrument? 3824 View Is it possible to purchase Buffer VXL which is part of the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit, (Cat No.: 54104, 54106) separately? FAQ ID - 3712 View Is it possible to purify a GST-tagged protein under denaturing conditions using Glutathione Superflow? FAQ ID -2172 View Is it possible to purify and normalize long range PCRs produced with PCR kits from other vendors for the SeqTarget System? FAQ ID -2243 View Is it possible to purify DNA from the whole sample of a PAXgene Saliva Collector in one preparation? 3826 View Is it possible to purify viral RNA using FastLane Cell RT-PCR Kits? FAQ ID -1484 View Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates? FAQ ID -3155 View Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system? FAQ ID -3161 View Is it possible to scale up QuantiTect Reverse Transcription reactions to allow use of larger amounts of RNA? FAQ ID -1063 View Is it possible to scale up sample volume and reaction volume? FAQ ID - 3884 View Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent? FAQ ID -2996 View Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K? FAQ ID - 3362 View Is it possible to store nucleic acids extracted using the SpeedXtract Virus Kit? FAQ ID - 3680 View Is it possible to store TAGzyme enzymes at°C? -80 View Is it possible to store the lysates? How can the lysates be stored? FAQ ID - 3973 View Is it possible to synthesize membrane proteins using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit? FAQ ID -602 View Is it possible to test the efficiency of FastSelect rRNA removal by using a Bioanalyzer, etc.? FAQ ID -147916 View Is it possible to transfect DNA into insect cell lines such as Drosophila melanogaster S2? FAQ ID -397 View Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument? FAQ ID -3162 View Is it possible to use a QIAzol lysate for the isolation of RNA from tissue on the BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -573 View Is it possible to use a standard processor — the kind used routinely for formalin-fixed samples — for dehydration and paraffin infiltration of PAXgene Tissue treated samples? FAQ ID -3032 View Is it possible to use ABI instruments without ROX as a passive reference? FAQ ID - 3889 View Is it possible to use different sample types in one run with the MagAttract 96 cador Pathogen Kit? FAQ ID -2072 View Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols for extraction of biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3043 View Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols to isolate biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3610 View Is it possible to use frozen cell pellets with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit? FAQ ID -835 View Is it possible to use less than 1 mg of protein with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit? FAQ ID -599 View Is it possible to use LiquiChip beads for FACS applications? FAQ ID -733 View Is it possible to use lower siRNA concentrations with FlexiTube siRNA Premix? FAQ ID -2264 View Is it possible to use Lyse&Spin baskets? FAQ ID - 143762 View Is it possible to use MaXtract for an organic extraction with a mixture of phenol and BCP (1 bromine chlorpropane)? -3 View Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system? FAQ ID -3160 View Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-Trisystem Vector with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II? FAQ ID -1225 View Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-TriSystem Vectors with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Insect Kit? FAQ ID -876 View Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat? FAQ ID -3139 View Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits? FAQ ID -2969 View Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits? FAQ ID -2968 View Is it possible to use the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit in batch format? FAQ ID -1069 View Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay? FAQ ID -3138 View Is it possible to use the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit with bacterial RNA? FAQ ID -785 View Is it possible to use the REPLI-g WTA Single Cell kit to amplify miRNA? FAQ ID - 3563 View Is it possible to use the touch down PCR option on QIAquant with two acquisition points in the same channel? 153925 View Is magnetic particle carry-over in the eluates on the BioSprint 96 normal? FAQ ID -2073 View Is mitochondrial DNA isolated with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2030 View Is mRNA isolation necessary for sensitive RT-PCR? FAQ ID -111 View Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary adherent cell types? FAQ ID -2268 View Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary suspension cell types? FAQ ID -2269 View Is Phoenix Hot Start Taq capable of multiplex PCR? FAQ ID - 3901 View Is plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid Purification Kits suitable for in vitro transcription? FAQ ID -1 View Is Q-Solution required for PCR with QIAGEN's PCR kits? FAQ ID -380 View Is QIAGEN carrier RNA sold separately? FAQ ID -351 View Is QIAseq FastSelect truly as easy as combining a reagent with RNA and ramping down the temperature? FAQ ID -147909 View Is REST software Windows 7 compatible? FAQ ID -3182 View Is restriction enzyme digestion required? FAQ ID - 3875 View Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? FAQ ID -2960 View Is RNA co-purified with DNA using QIAsymphony DNA Tissue protocols? FAQ ID -1920 View Is RNA from red blood cells also isolated when RNA is extracted from a PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube? FAQ ID -2509 View Is RNA preserved in saliva collected in PAXgene Saliva Collector? 3818 View Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA? FAQ ID -3143 View Is RNAprotect Bacteria Reagent compatible with the RNeasy Mini Kit? FAQ ID -797 View Is RNAprotect Cell Reagent provided in the RNeasy Protect Cell Kit available separately? FAQ ID -1217 View Is sample pretreatment required for purifying RNA on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1938 View Is sequence information for HP Validated siRNAs provided in the FlexiTube format? FAQ ID -1665 View Is the 260/230 nm absorbance ratio specified for RNA derived from the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System? FAQ ID -2514 View Is the cDNA cleanup step in the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit workflow absolutely required? FAQ ID - 3571 View Is the CpG software included in the PyroMark instruments to study methylation status? FAQ ID -2842 View Is the DNA extracted with the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long-range PCR (>1 kb) and long-read DNA sequencing? 3760 View Is the DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long range PCR (>1 kb) and long read DNA sequencing? 153891 View Is the E. coli Host Strain M15[pREP4] resistant to Zeocin? FAQ ID -842 View Is the EasyXtal Tool compatible with liquid-handling systems and visualization robots? FAQ ID -1118 View Is the expression level of miRNA precursors lower compared to that of mature miRNAs? FAQ ID -2807 View Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples? FAQ ID - 3965 View Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples? FAQ ID - 3994 View Is the master mix of QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR aliquoted into several tubes to prevent cross-contamination? FAQ ID -1697 View Is the Microbial qPCR mastermix used in the Microbial DNA assay and in the Microbial DNA arrays free of genomic bacterial DNA? FAQ ID - 3535 View Is the miRNA reverse transcription control (miRTC) used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit? FAQ ID - 3573 View Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples? FAQ ID -2526 View Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples? FAQ ID -3039 View Is the performance of the HiPerFect HTS Reagent affected if it has accidentally been stored at°C? -20 View Is the pH indicated in the formulation sheet for Screening Suite buffers the final pH? FAQ ID -1123 View is the purity of nucleic acids isolated with the PAXgene Tissue Kits? FAQ ID -3044 View Is the QIAprep&amp CRISPR Kit also applicable to other gene-editing technologies such as TALENs and ZFN? 3787 View Is the QIAquant equipped with a temperature gradient function? 153923 View Is the QIAsymphony RNA Kit compatible with stabilized samples? FAQ ID -1944 View Is the QIAxcel Advanced discontinued? FAQ ID - 3983 View Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing? FAQ ID - 3517 View Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing (NGS)? FAQ ID - 3518 View Is the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR +R Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems? FAQ ID -2653 View Is the QuantiFast Probe PCR +ROX Vial Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems? FAQ ID -2651 View Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems? FAQ ID -2652 View Is the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for miRNA amplification? FAQ ID -1609 View Is the random biotin labeling of proteins expressed with your EasyXpress Biotin Labeling Kit as sensitive as labeling with radioactivity? FAQ ID -875 View Is the Reagent Bottle Rack, Grey, QC2 (cat. no. 9026197) compatible with the QIAcube Classic instrument? FAQ ID - 3993 View Is the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers? FAQ ID - 3540 View Is the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers? FAQ ID - 3552 View Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues? FAQ ID -2343 View Is the SeqTarget System compatible with standard-size PCRs? FAQ ID -2241 View Is the software of the QIAquant compatible with 21CFR part11? 153930 View Is the surface tension of the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tools similar to that of a siliconized cover slide? FAQ ID -1107 View Is the T790M mutation included in the EGFR PCR kit? FAQ ID -2314 View Is the TurboCapture Microplate Holder Type B compatible with the Biomek FX robotic workstation? FAQ ID -1040 View Is the virus inactivated during the procedure? 3800 View Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods. FAQ ID -2349 View Is there a charge for user training on the QIAsymphony SP System? FAQ ID -1900 View Is there a critical step during upfront sample handling when using the PAXgene Blood RNA MDX kit? FAQ ID -2493 View Is there a limit to the size of proteins that can be purified using the Qproteome Glycoprotein Kits? FAQ ID -1071 View Is there a quality difference between CompactPrep Plasmid Mega and Giga and the CompactPrep Plasmid Midi and Maxi Kits? FAQ ID -1882 View Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers? FAQ ID -2980 View Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products? FAQ ID -2331 View Is there a stopping point in the protocol for Suspended Cells using the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit? FAQ ID -837 View Is there a user manual available for the PyroMark Assay design software? FAQ ID -2851 View Is there a way to compare the environmental impacts of the kit? FAQ ID - 3991 View Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available? View Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available? FAQ ID -2346 View Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm? FAQ ID - 3460 View Is there anything to consider when processing cultured cells on coated cultivation dishes? Are additional purification steps required to eliminate or reduce coating reagents such as Poly-L-Lysine? 3791 View Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -3185 View Is there something to consider when working with transduced cells treated with Polybrene? 3790 View Is this available without glycerol? FAQ ID - 3959 View Is TopTaq DNA Polymerase a hot-start polymerase? FAQ ID -1748 View Is training of lab personnel included with the purchase of a BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -1239 View Is V600E the only mutation that can be detected with the codon 600 assay in the BRAF Pyro Kit? FAQ ID -2382 View Is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme? FAQ ID - 3916 View Is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme? FAQ ID - 3929 View Is your Nuclease-Free Water fluorescence-free? FAQ ID -1291 View May I continue with the saliva collection if I accidentally unscrewed the funnel prematurely? 3809 View May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit? FAQ ID -2698 View Microscopic/visual confirmation of successfully sorted cells can be used to optimize sorting conditions. Can stained cells be used? FAQ ID - 3559 View My ADAPT report states "Run Invalid" and does not display any sample results. Why is this? FAQ ID -2306 View My BioMag is about to expire, is it still any good? FAQ ID -268 View My BioRobot 9604 came with several Accessory Applications. Is it recommended I run these protocols? FAQ ID -872 View My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this? FAQ ID - 3956 View My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this? FAQ ID - 3945 View My QuantiTect Master Mix did not freeze at degrees. Is it still ok to use? -20 View My samples are expected to have low concentrations. Can I load more sample into the workflow or more lysate into the PCR reaction? FAQ ID - 3995 View My samples are highly fragmented. Is the dPCR result for resDNA quantification accurate? FAQ ID - 3877 View On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated? FAQ ID -2978 View On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used? FAQ ID -2973 View On which cyclers can the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be used? FAQ ID -2596 View On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work? FAQ ID -2719 View QuantiTect Primer Assays are bioinformatically validated, genomewide primer sets. What does “bioinformatically validated” mean? FAQ ID -1982 View Should cells be washed before collection? FAQ ID - 3544 View Should cells be washed before collection? FAQ ID - 3556 View Should I input the dilution factor of my samples into the LiquiChip Analyser Software dilution factors of samples? FAQ ID -1211 View Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays? FAQ ID -2747 View Should I use Ni-NTA Agarose in column or batch format for purification of 6xHis-tagged proteins? FAQ ID -147 View Should I use Omniscript or Sensiscript for reverse transcription of low-copy mRNA? FAQ ID -297 View Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker? FAQ ID -2900 View Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the neomycin-resistance marker, the puromycin-resistance marker, or the GFP reporter gene? FAQ ID -2882 View Should miScript PreAMP Primer Mixes be used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit? FAQ ID - 3570 View Should sample lysate volumes be exactly 200 µL, 500 µL, or 1000 µL when loaded on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2031 View Should total RNA or small enriched RNA be used as the starting material for the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3659 View The disruption of my sample worked well with the TissueLyser LT, but I am not satisfied with the RNA yield. What do you suggest? FAQ ID -2555 View The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions? FAQ ID -2750 View The Gel Cartridge is installed and all status indicators for the QIAxcel System are good but when clicking the "RUN" button, nothing happens. The green highlight goes down the Sequence? FAQ ID -1850 View The integrity of my DNA sample (e.g. QIAxcel Connect) is bad. FAQ ID - 3958 View The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why? FAQ ID -3117 View The Multiflow Dispense Head on my BioRobot is not dispensing the correct amount of liquid. What can I do? FAQ ID -652 View The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem? FAQ ID -2766 View The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem? FAQ ID -2767 View The QIAsymphony RNA kit uses RLT plus as lysis buffer. Can samples lysed in RLT and then stored in the freezer be used on the QIAsymphony? FAQ ID - 3533 View The Sigma Centrifuge makes a loud noise at low speeds which disappears at higher speeds, when using the 2x96-well plate rotor. What is the problem? FAQ ID -776 View There is no barcode on the QIAsymphony cooling adapter, and the instrument asks for one. What do you suggest I do? FAQ ID - 3532 View Total RNA from what sample types are compatible with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3660 View We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyze the results. Any suggestions? FAQ ID - 3621 View Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated? FAQ ID -2912 View What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation? FAQ ID -630 View What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID -499 View What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID - 3474 View What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions? FAQ ID - 3919 View What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions? FAQ ID - 3932 View What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays? FAQ ID -849 View What applications are offered on the QIAcube Connect MDx instrument? 148726 View What applications are offered on the QIAcube? FAQ ID -1403 View What applications can the QIAquant be used for? 153927 View What are clusters analyzed in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software? FAQ ID -2201 View What are common sized libraries observed on a TapeStation, Bioanalyzer, or similar instruments? FAQ ID - 3837 View What are critical steps during CTC enrichment? 3830 View What are EasyXtal 15-well Tools used for? FAQ ID -2217 View What are Elution Microtube adapters and Microplate adapters used in the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit, and how can I order them? FAQ ID -646 View What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays? FAQ ID -2720 View What are exo-resistant random hexamers used in the REPLI-g reaction? FAQ ID -710 View What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit? FAQ ID -2359 View What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume? FAQ ID - 3462 View What are possible reasons for reduced DNA yields with REPLI-g Kits? FAQ ID -2148 View What are Principal Components analyzed in Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software? FAQ ID -2200 View What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure? FAQ ID - 3663 View What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits? 3753 View What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ2 AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit? FAQ ID - 3950 View What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits? 153892 View What are some of the assays that are adaptable to the LiquiChip System? FAQ ID -477 View What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel? FAQ ID -1059 View What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility? FAQ ID -3064 View What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H- (P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)? FAQ ID - 3960 View What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-(P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)? FAQ ID - 3838 View What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays? FAQ ID -2721 View What are the advantages of REPLI-g over conventional DNA sample processing and amplification methods? FAQ ID -686 View What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms? FAQ ID -2921 View What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA? FAQ ID -2786 View What are the amplicon lengths of the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits? FAQ ID -2289 View What are the applications the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool can be used for? FAQ ID -1111 View What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24? FAQ ID -3158 View What are the calculated molecular weights of the TAGZyme enzymes? FAQ ID -329 View What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0? FAQ ID -2849 View What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays? FAQ ID -2669 View What are the compatibilities of different reagents with Ni-NTA matrices? FAQ ID -49 View What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2914 View What are the corresponding QIAGEN names for former Biotage instruments? FAQ ID -2285 View What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies? FAQ ID -2759 View What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification? FAQ ID -665 View What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry and PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents? FAQ ID -3165 View What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR? FAQ ID -2666 View What are the differences between QIAxcel Advanced and QIAxcel Connect? FAQ ID - 3857 View What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit? FAQ ID -2358 View What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube Connect MDx? 148729 View What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube? FAQ ID -1407 View What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAsymphony SP System? FAQ ID -1901 View What are the dimensions of the TissueLyser LT? FAQ ID -2545 View What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies? FAQ ID -385 View What are the effects of low A260/A230 ratios in RNA preparations on downstream applications? FAQ ID -2248 View What are the excitation and emission wavelengths of the reporter and classification lasers of the LiquiChip Instrument? FAQ ID -479 View What are the expected average DNA yields from plant extractions on the BioSprint 96? FAQ ID -771 View What are the expected DNA yields from different tissues using the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit? FAQ ID -45 View What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2990 View What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1919 View What are the expected PCR results when using EpiTect Control DNA on untreated or bisulfite-converted DNA? FAQ ID -2011 View What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit? FAQ ID - 3481 View What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID - 3475 View What are the expected yields of total RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1942 View What are the features and benefits of the QIAexpress 6xHis Tag System? FAQ ID -193 View What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays, for example, in terms of design and validation? FAQ ID -2821 View What are the features of the expression vector used for QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia? FAQ ID -2050 View What are the features of the new PyroMark Q96 ID software 2.5? FAQ ID -2867 View What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results? FAQ ID -2674 View What are the heating/cooling rates in the QIAquant instruments? 153919 View What are the ideal and the largest PCR amplicon sizes when using the EpiTect MSP Kit? FAQ ID -2004 View What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment? FAQ ID -2758 View What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment? FAQ ID -2775 View What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC? FAQ ID -2449 View What are the limits of detection of the QIAxcel Connect? FAQ ID - 3853 View What are the LIMS capacity of the software? 153949 View What are the main differences between other magnetic beads and the BioMag particles? FAQ ID -272 View What are the main differences between Rotor-Gene and QuantiTect or QuantiFast PCR Kits? FAQ ID -2119 View What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2438 View What are the major differences between QIAseq Targeted RNA Panel TCR kit and previous QIAseq Immune Repertoire RNA library kit? FAQ ID - 3999 View What are the maximum culture volumes to use with the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi or Maxi Kit? FAQ ID -167 View What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit? FAQ ID -3147 View What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits? FAQ ID — 3393 View What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY? FAQ ID -3112 View What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer? FAQ ID -3111 View What are the molecular weights of proteins in the 6xHis Protein Ladder? FAQ ID -169 View What are the most commonly used protease inhibitors? FAQ ID -53 View What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments? FAQ ID -2657 View What are the new features of the EasyXpress Insect Kit II compared to the original Protein Synthesis Insect kit? FAQ ID -1220 View What are the recommended culture and buffer volumes for a very low-copy plasmid? FAQ ID -168 View What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2993 View What are the recommended storage conditions for the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit and its components? FAQ ID -1077 View What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components? FAQ ID -2355 View What are the ResDNA Quant Kit components? FAQ ID - 3878 View What are the restriction sites of the pDrive Vector in the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit? FAQ ID -160 View What are the sequences of the FlexiTube siRNAs? FAQ ID -851 View What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package? FAQ - 3426 View What are the starting volumes of homogenate for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1939 View What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol? FAQ ID -3157 View What are the storage conditions and expiry date of QIAcuity consumables? 3780 View What are the storage conditions for the mericon Assay kits? FAQ ID -2540 View What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products? FAQ ID — 3394 View What are the storage conditions? FAQ ID - 3748 View What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies? FAQ ID -2760 View What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2784 View What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays? FAQ ID -2924 View What are the Tms of PCR products obtained using the miScript System? FAQ ID -1599 View What are the turnaround times for FlexiPlate siRNA orders? FAQ ID -1478 View What are the typical yields obtained from Buccal swabs on BioSprint 96? FAQ ID -3071 View What are the yield and integrity of nucleic acids isolated from blocks of PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3613 View What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits? FAQ ID -2408 View What are your recommendations for cotransfecting several plasmids? FAQ ID -124 View What are your recommendations for PCR template preparation for use with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II? FAQ ID -1221 View What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit? FAQ ID -2491 View What blocking reagents do you recommend for chemiluminescent detection using Penta-, Tetra-, and RGS-His antibodies? FAQ ID -1093 View What buffer conditions give the best resolution for agarose gel electrophoresis? FAQ ID -2256 View What buffer should be used to dilute cDNA made using the miScript Reverse Transcription Kit? FAQ ID -1601 View What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly? FAQ ID -1834 View What can be done if the protein pellet does not solubilize completely using the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit? FAQ ID -1580 View What can be the reason for low DNA yields after normalization with the SeqTarget System? FAQ ID -2239 View What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA? FAQ ID -728 View What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3675 View What can I do if I don't see the fill line anymore due to saliva bubbles? 3807 View What can I do to stimulate saliva flow? 3805 View What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried? FAQ ID -572 View What can I use to isolate RNA smaller than 200 nucleotides? FAQ ID -115 View What cell line does QIAGEN use for quality control testing of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2885 View What cell lines can I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2891 View What cell lines have been tested with the Fastlane Cell cDNA Kit? FAQ ID -1175 View What cell lines have been tested with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit? FAQ ID -1205 View What color channels are used? FAQ ID - 3885 View What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing? FAQ ID -2826 View What controls are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits to ensure reliable results? FAQ ID -2291 View What controls should be used for normalizing miRNA real-time PCR data obtained with the miScript System? FAQ ID -1596 View What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed? FAQ ID -3175 View What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry? FAQ ID -3176 View What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample? FAQ ID — 3412 View What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies? FAQ ID -2771 View What data documentation does QIAGEN's Sequencing Service provide for customers? FAQ ID -832 View What dedicated QIAcube Connect kits are available? FAQ ID - 141504 View What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available? 148743 View What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available? FAQ ID -2337 View What denaturation temperature should be used in cycling conditions? FAQ ID - 3918 View What denaturation temperature should be used in the cycling conditions? FAQ ID - 3931 View What detection reagents (reporter fluorophores) do you recommend for the LiquiChip System? FAQ ID -480 View What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx? FAQ ID -809 View What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -1246 View What do I do if I cannot see amplification in the FAM channel in my KRAS and EGFR PCR kits? FAQ ID -2297 View What do I do if I get amplification in my no template control (NTC) with the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits? FAQ ID -2298 View What do I need in order to set up an RNAi experiment? FAQ ID -2757 View What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay? FAQ ID -2707 View What do I need to provide when ordering a miScript Target Protector? FAQ ID -2251 View What do the GTIN, UDI and REF abbreviations mean on the label of any QIAGEN box? FAQ ID - 3697 View What do you mean by “Quantification of locus representation” in REPLI-g WGA product? FAQ ID -698 View What do you recommend for isolating RNA from more than 100 mg of plant tissue? FAQ ID -570 View What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)? FAQ ID -618 View What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy? FAQ ID -942 View What does 'QIAGEN Certified Solution' for Protein Crystallization mean? FAQ ID -1121 View What does a typical EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay or Array include? FAQ ID -2740 View What does PAXgene Tissue FIX contain? FAQ ID -3020 View What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain? FAQ ID - 3513 View What does QIAGEN use for a positive control in precursor detection experiments? FAQ ID -2212 View What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain? FAQ ID - 3501 View What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene? FAQ ID -2712 View What does the standard kit contain? FAQ ID - 3938 View What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays? FAQ ID -1137 View What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System? FAQ ID - 3506 View What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits? FAQ ID -2288 View What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits? FAQ ID -1751 View What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits? FAQ ID - 3985 View What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)? FAQ ID -2918 View What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2889 View What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols? FAQ ID -2937 View What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol? FAQ ID -2986 View What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize? FAQ ID -170 View What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples? FAQ ID -1154 View What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes? FAQ ID -1312 View What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software? FAQ ID -2700 View What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap? FAQ ID - 3364 View What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools? FAQ ID -2219 View What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)? FAQ ID -3025 View What happens if I accidentally unscrew the funnel before saliva collection is completed? 3808 View What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed? FAQ ID -514 View What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred? FAQ ID -2963 View What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? FAQ ID -2962 View What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template? FAQ ID -2009 View What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer? FAQ ID -528 View What if only one heater shaker is available? FAQ ID - 143764 View What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA? FAQ ID -1365 View What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs? FAQ ID -1363 View What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format? FAQ ID -1463 View What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry? FAQ ID -2678 View What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit? FAQ ID -2005 View What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay? FAQ ID -476 View What is a miScript Precursor Assay? FAQ ID -2214 View What is a miScript Target Protector? FAQ ID -2249 View What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code? FAQ ID -2941 View What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample? FAQ ID -631 View What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay? FAQ ID -1141 View What is a quenched FRET assay? FAQ ID -542 View What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit? FAQ ID -2029 View What is in the additive in the PAXgene Saliva Collector? 3810 View What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit? FAQ ID -2511 View What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY? FAQ ID -3168 View What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay? FAQ ID -2815 View What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment? FAQ ID -2785 View What is LLOQ? FAQ ID — 3401 View What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment? FAQ ID -2179 View What is MOI? FAQ ID -2768 View What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q? FAQ ID -3178 View What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits? FAQ ID -1554 View What is qPCR? FAQ ID -2668 View What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification? FAQ ID -654 View What is RNA interference (RNAi)? FAQ ID -2755 View What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA? FAQ ID -2262 View What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin? FAQ ID -320 View What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run? FAQ ID - 3673 View What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal? FAQ ID - 3523 View What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure? FAQ ID -3166 View What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes FAQ ID - 3486 View What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3372 View What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies? FAQ ID -2010 View What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation? FAQ ID -769 View What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit? FAQ ID -2059 View What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit? FAQ ID -2064 View What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software? 153954 View What is the amount of standard for the different kit? FAQ ID - 3936 View What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay? 2856 View What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System? FAQ ID - 3443 View What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System? FAQ ID - 3578 View What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay? FAQ ID -3156 View What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq? FAQ ID - 3904 View What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3911 View What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3912 View What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3924 View What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma? FAQ ID - 3846 View What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum? FAQ ID -635 View What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit? FAQ ID -721 View What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay? FAQ ID -2374 View What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values? FAQ ID -388 View What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -2534 View What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3045 View What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol? FAQ ID -3173 View What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System? FAQ ID -740 View What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them? FAQ ID -2705 View What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer? FAQ ID -3179 View What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System? FAQ ID -601 View What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges? FAQ ID -1603 View What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column? FAQ ID -427 View What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column? FAQ ID -430 View What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube FAQ ID - 3631 View What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR? FAQ ID -782 View What is the cellular composition of human blood? FAQ ID -2951 View What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed? FAQ ID -2693 View What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits? FAQ ID -2812 View What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads? FAQ ID -475 View What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit? FAQ ID - 3429 View What is the composition of buffer AE? FAQ ID -730 View What is the composition of Buffer ALO? FAQ ID -2805 View What is the composition of Buffer APL? FAQ ID -2803 View What is the composition of Buffer APP? FAQ ID -2804 View What is the composition of Buffer B1? FAQ ID -2944 View What is the composition of Buffer B2? FAQ ID -2945 View What is the composition of Buffer BB? FAQ ID -2790 View What is the composition of Buffer EB? FAQ ID -199 View What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately? FAQ ID -571 View What is the composition of Buffer ETR? FAQ ID -2789 View What is the composition of Buffer FG3? FAQ ID -356 View What is the composition of Buffer FRN? FAQ ID -2802 View What is the composition of buffer FWB2? FAQ ID -417 View What is the composition of Buffer G2? FAQ ID -2943 View What is the composition of Buffer N3? FAQ ID -767 View What is the composition of buffer OBB? FAQ ID -421 View What is the composition of buffer OCD? FAQ ID -423 View What is the composition of buffer OCL? FAQ ID -422 View What is the composition of buffer OEB? FAQ ID -420 View What is the composition of buffer OL2? FAQ ID -424 View What is the composition of buffer OW2? FAQ ID -419 View What is the composition of Buffer P2? FAQ ID -203 View What is the composition of buffer P3? FAQ ID -418 View What is the composition of Buffer PB? FAQ ID -2791 View What is the composition of Buffer PE? FAQ ID -1691 View What is the composition of Buffer PKD? FAQ ID -2801 View What is the composition of buffer QBT? FAQ ID -411 View What is the composition of buffer QC? FAQ ID -412 View What is the composition of buffer QF? FAQ ID -413 View What is the composition of buffer QN? FAQ ID -414 View What is the composition of Buffer RDD? FAQ ID -2800 View What is the composition of Buffer RLC? FAQ ID -2795 View What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus? FAQ ID -2794 View What is the composition of Buffer RLT? FAQ ID -2793 View What is the composition of Buffer RPE? FAQ ID -2797 View What is the composition of Buffer RW1? FAQ ID -2796 View What is the composition of Buffer RWT? FAQ ID -2798 View What is the composition of Buffer S3? FAQ ID -2788 View What is the composition of buffer STE? FAQ ID -415 View What is the composition of buffer TE? FAQ ID -416 View What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution? FAQ ID -2809 View What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution? FAQ ID -2811 View What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits? FAQ ID -2813 View What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit? FAQ ID -1356 View What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits? FAQ ID - 3387 View What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer? FAQ ID -1361 View What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution? FAQ ID -2799 View What is the composition of PBS? FAQ ID -361 View What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution? FAQ ID -2810 View What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent? FAQ ID - 3355 View What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution? FAQ ID -2808 View What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer? FAQ ID - 3437 View What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits? FAQ ID -606 View What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer? FAQ ID -289 View What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer? FAQ ID -522 View What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo? FAQ ID -2846 View What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent? FAQ ID - 3708 View What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN? FAQ ID -3084 View What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols? FAQ ID -3083 View What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays? FAQ ID -2370 View What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays? FAQ ID -850 View What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit? FAQ ID - 3984 View What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays? FAQ ID -2915 View What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48? FAQ ID - 3719 View What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays? FAQ ID -1142 View What is the delta Rn value? FAQ ID -2681 View What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits? FAQ ID -2453 View What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR? FAQ ID -1432 View What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits? FAQ ID -2144 View What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach? FAQ ID -2692 View What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step? FAQ ID -2600 View What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody? FAQ ID -569 View What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL? 3757 View What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus? FAQ ID -1043 View What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System? FAQ ID -139 View What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit? FAQ ID -3167 View What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS? FAQ ID -3108 View What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD? FAQ ID — 3402 View What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow? FAQ ID -764 View What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control? FAQ ID — 3397 View What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software? FAQ ID -2203 View What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits? FAQ ID -761 View What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits? FAQ ID -2448 View What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version? FAQ ID - 3685 View What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation? FAQ ID -2420 View What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs? FAQ ID -3174 View What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific? FAQ ID -275 View What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits? FAQ ID — 3410 View What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit? FAQ ID -295 View What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits? FAQ ID - 3715 View What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B? FAQ ID -1038 View What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose? FAQ ID -1206 View What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL? 153895 View What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector? FAQ ID -2253 View What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system? FAQ ID - 3444 View What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System? FAQ ID - 3579 View What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3047 View What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader? FAQ ID -1158 View What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of? FAQ ID -1106 View What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits? FAQ ID -846 View What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction? FAQ ID -704 View What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step? FAQ ID - 3542 View What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step? FAQ ID - 3554 View What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID -1048 View What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays? FAQ ID — 3396 View What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits? FAQ ID -2544 View What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood? FAQ ID - 3637 View What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector? 3823 View What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3382 View What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector? 3822 View What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits? FAQ ID -3082 View What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit? FAQ ID -3081 View What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3383 View What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD? FAQ ID - 3511 View What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood? FAQ ID - 3496 View What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit? FAQ ID -632 View What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID -1739 View What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq? FAQ ID - 3905 View What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase? FAQ ID - 3925 View What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini? FAQ ID -3140 View What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System? FAQ ID -3019 View What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX? FAQ ID - 3601 View What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System? FAQ ID -731 View What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells? FAQ ID -157 View What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer? FAQ ID - 3428 View What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF? 3769 View What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3046 View What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples? FAQ ID -2656 View What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits? FAQ ID -2976 View What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit? FAQ ID -1047 View What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit? FAQ ID -1752 View What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product? FAQ ID -690 View What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit? FAQ ID -2907 View What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits? FAQ ID -2909 View What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector? -30 View What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use? FAQ ID -2560 View What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules? FAQ ID -307 View What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1591 View What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit? FAQ ID -426 View What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns? FAQ ID -290 View What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit? FAQ ID -3146 View What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -2028 View What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K? -16 View What is the maximum number of available sample indexes? FAQ ID - 3665 View What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run? FAQ ID -2498 View What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ? FAQ ID -1208 View What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction? FAQ ID -2998 View What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run? FAQ ID - 3482 View What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit? FAQ ID -2145 View What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit? FAQ ID -2316 View What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)? FAQ ID -3024 View What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container? FAQ ID -2518 View What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)? FAQ ID - 3604 View What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit? FAQ ID -1616 View What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3537 View What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3549 View What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences? FAQ ID -2841 View What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2739 View What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit? 148724 View What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit? FAQ ID -1750 View What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test? FAQ ID - 3887 View What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis? 3789 View What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit? FAQ ID -428 View What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit? FAQ ID -432 View What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)? FAQ ID - 3696 View What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER? FAQ ID -3029 View What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates? FAQ ID -2109 View What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit? FAQ ID - 3519 View What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield? FAQ ID - 3516 View What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96? FAQ ID -3076 View What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates? FAQ ID -1468 View What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced? FAQ ID -1852 View What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit? FAQ ID -3171 View What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture? FAQ ID -2777 View What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits? FAQ ID -2974 View What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing? FAQ ID - 3366 View What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits? FAQ ID -2543 View What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit? FAQ ID -2450 View What is the new Waste Tube made of? FAQ ID - 3987 View What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit? FAQ ID -2646 View What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System? FAQ ID -2247 View What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-? FAQ ID - 3840 View What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors? FAQ ID -338 View What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced? FAQ ID -3055 View What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate? FAQ ID -2486 View What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3618 View What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3051 View What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations? FAQ ID - 3886 View What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water? FAQ ID -1290 View What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal? FAQ ID - 3527 View What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal? FAQ ID - 3525 View What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)? FAQ ID - 3935 View What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent? FAQ ID -184 View What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit? FAQ ID -2003 View What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis? FAQ ID -2916 View What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit? FAQ ID -1753 View What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System? FAQ ID -2237 View What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation? FAQ ID - 3470 View What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument? FAQ ID -870 View What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit? FAQ ID -1090 View What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit? FAQ ID -1201 View What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits? FAQ ID -2533 View What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes? FAQ ID -2671 View What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set? FAQ ID -2007 View What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter? FAQ ID -2868 View What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for? FAQ ID -2864 View What is the QIAxcel Connect System? FAQ ID - 3859 View What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt? FAQ ID - 3365 View What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page? FAQ ID -2456 View What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP? FAQ ID -1908 View What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve? FAQ ID -1079 View What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube? FAQ ID - 3632 View What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram? FAQ ID -2879 View What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run? FAQ ID -2875 View What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram? FAQ ID -2881 View What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution? FAQ ID -1030 View What is the recipe for 2x YT? FAQ ID -213 View What is the recipe for LB? FAQ ID -212 View What is the recipe for SOC medium? FAQ ID -798 View What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay? FAQ ID -2716 View What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays? FAQ ID -2825 View What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System? FAQ ID -154 View What is the recommended HpaII concentration? FAQ ID - 3976 View What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent? FAQ ID -647 View What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit? FAQ ID - 3565 View What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3668 View What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit? FAQ ID - 3446 View What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit? FAQ ID -1756 View What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis? FAQ ID -2659 View What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software? FAQ ID -2199 View What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits? FAQ ID -1034 View What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit? FAQ ID -3172 View What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1? FAQ ID -198 View What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -2538 View What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue? FAQ ID - 3514 View What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue? FAQ ID -3050 View What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array? FAQ ID -2718 View What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument? FAQ ID -622 View What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3557 View What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3545 View What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems? FAQ ID -2215 View What is the SBTengine® software? FAQ ID -2628 View What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity? 3765 View What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits? FAQ ID — 3409 View What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing? FAQ ID -2840 View What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2910 View What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)? FAQ ID - 3561 View What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer? FAQ ID -2994 View What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter? FAQ ID - 3671 View What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter? FAQ ID - 3672 View What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter? FAQ ID - 3835 View What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection? FAQ ID - 3374 View What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection? FAQ ID - 3488 View What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit? FAQ ID - 3651 View What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes? FAQ ID - 3633 View What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors? 3811 View What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)? FAQ ID - 3447 View What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit? FAQ ID -651 View What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit? FAQ ID - 3890 View What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix? FAQ ID -1743 View What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors? FAQ ID -470 View What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips? FAQ ID -142 View What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1? FAQ ID -1245 View What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick? FAQ ID -148 View What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction? FAQ ID -663 View What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II? FAQ ID -1218 View What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits? FAQ ID -485 View What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ? FAQ ID -3169 View What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended? FAQ ID -3109 View What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product? FAQ ID -693 View What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3920 View What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER? FAQ ID - 3602 View What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays? FAQ ID -330 View What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed? FAQ ID -2691 View What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery? FAQ ID -3104 View What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? FAQ ID -2956 View What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)? FAQ ID - 3964 View What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)? FAQ ID - 3842 View What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee? FAQ ID -2898 View What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony? FAQ ID -2158 View What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal? FAQ ID -3056 View What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument? FAQ ID -3057 View What is the threshold cycle or Ct value? FAQ ID -2682 View What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays? FAQ ID -1985 View What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector? FAQ ID -2254 View What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT? FAQ ID -2552 View What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit? FAQ ID -873 View What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits? FAQ ID -1738 View What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo? FAQ ID -2855 View What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit? FAQ ID -1067 View What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)? 3784 View What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet? FAQ ID -352 View What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for? FAQ ID -530 View What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)? FAQ ID -1055 View What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool? FAQ ID -2220 View What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered? FAQ ID -2441 View What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors? FAQ ID -1983 View What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics? FAQ ID -1986 View What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit? FAQ ID -165 View What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis? FAQ ID -2216 View What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT? FAQ ID -2553 View What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit? FAQ ID -2034 View What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step? FAQ ID -2837 View What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3536 View What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit? FAQ ID - 3548 View What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend? FAQ ID -1120 View What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood? FAQ ID -304 View What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with? FAQ ID -147912 View What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer? FAQ ID -1821 View What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior? FAQ ID -566 View What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit? FAQ ID -2292 View What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library? FAQ ID - 3667 View What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays? FAQ ID -2920 View What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center? FAQ ID - 3698 View What MOI should I use for my cells? FAQ ID -2770 View What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit? FAQ ID -779 View What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments? FAQ ID -2672 View What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2922 View What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis? FAQ ID - 3963 View What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis? FAQ ID - 3841 View What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2917 View What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits? FAQ ID - 3250 View What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits? FAQ ID -2381 View What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits? FAQ ID - 3251 View What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments? FAQ ID -2673 View What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent? FAQ ID -3137 View What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure? FAQ ID -1584 View What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2886 View What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment? FAQ ID -831 View What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in? FAQ ID -815 View What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)? FAQ ID -371 View What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays FAQ ID — 3422 View What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have? FAQ ID -1292 View What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex? FAQ ID -1436 View What quenchers are used? FAQ ID - 3865 View What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits? FAQ ID -551 View What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments? FAQ ID -2670 View What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)? FAQ ID - 3939 View What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24? 2857 View What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit? FAQ ID -1943 View What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with? FAQ ID -147914 View What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit? FAQ ID - 3464 View What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System? FAQ ID -2506 View What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove? FAQ ID -147910 View Show more results Back to top Contact QIAGEN Global contacts Technical Service Customer Care

How can samples be shipped and stored prior to extraction on the Autopure LS?

FAQ ID - 3522

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How can samples be shipped and stored prior to extraction on the Autopure LS?

FAQ ID - 3528

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How can the QIAsymphony SP system be decontaminated?

FAQ ID -1914

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How can we get our BioRobot EZ1 upgraded when new protocols are launched?

FAQ ID -1241

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How can yield for long targets be increased when using Phoenix Hot Start Taq?

FAQ ID - 3907

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How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3914

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How can yield for targets be increased when using VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3926

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How comparable is CoralLoad gel loading dye contained in various QIAGEN PCR Kits to Sigma Red?

FAQ ID -1644

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How complete is the removal of DAPase in the TAGZyme process?

FAQ ID -319

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How critical is the time of the temperature change from 60°C to 80°C?

FAQ ID - 143768

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How did you calculate the conversion factor?

FAQ ID - 3937

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How did you determine that your AllStar Negative Control siRNA binds to RISC?

FAQ ID -1180

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How do I analyze codon 61 mutations with the RAS extension kit (cat. no. 971590)?

FAQ ID - 3622

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How do I analyze the data for the particular iPSC qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?

FAQ ID -2440

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How do I calculate the percentage of silencing with real-time RT-PCR for siRNA?

FAQ ID -498

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How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?

FAQ ID -2761

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How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies?

FAQ ID -2746

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How do I clean up RNA preparations containing miRNA?

FAQ ID -3002

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How do I create a workspace that is free of DNA contamination, prior to carrying out a qPCR experiment?

FAQ ID -2654

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How do I determine if my gene expression results are statistically significant in the REST software?

FAQ ID -2458

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How do I determine the amplification efficiency of my qPCR assay?

FAQ ID -2694

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How do I determine the linear dynamic range of my qPCR or qRT-PCR assay?

FAQ ID -2696

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How do I find the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids for my gene of interest?

FAQ ID -2883

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How do I get started using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits?

FAQ ID -2413

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How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?

FAQ ID -2330

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How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed?

FAQ ID -2422

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How do I insert and replace an absorber strip into the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep chamber?

FAQ ID - 3691

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How do I know if my plasmid is a high- or low copy number type?

FAQ ID -350

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How do I know if the assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest?

FAQ ID - 3870

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How do I know if the CGT dPCR assays are compatible with the sample DNA of interest?

FAQ ID - 3980

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How do I know in which phase of my NeXtal CubicPhase cristallisation experiment I am?

FAQ ID -2421

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How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected?

FAQ ID -3135

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How do I obtain the concentration of my gDNA from the data analysis using the GeneRead DNA QuantiMIZE?

FAQ ID - 3530

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How do I perform a DNA precipitation to concentrate my sample?

FAQ ID -305

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How do I perform an Acetone Precipitation for concentrating and desalting protein samples?

FAQ ID -1035

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How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?

FAQ ID -3163

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How do I prepare an insert for pQE vectors?

FAQ ID -185

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How do I prepare Buffer MP?

FAQ ID - 3620

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How do I prevent a drifting baseline in my pyrosequencing pyrogram? If this method cannot be selected automatically in the application software, you can download the method/code file from the instrument webpage.

FAQ ID -2878

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How do I prevent bubbles from forming in my Ni-NTA agarose column?

FAQ ID -285

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How do I proceed if the amount of starting material cannot be calculated in detail?

FAQ ID - 3943

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How do I reduce background peaks in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?

FAQ ID -2877

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How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA?

FAQ ID -3133

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How do I resuspend my FlexiPlate siRNAs?

FAQ ID -1360

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How do I safely inactivate biohazardous flow-through material?

FAQ ID -12

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How do I search for all the miScript Target Protectors for one species?

FAQ ID -2255

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How do I set up a PyroMark CpG Assay?

FAQ ID -2814

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How do I store my FlexiTube siRNA Premix?

FAQ ID -2270

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How do I submit a siRNA order by telephone or online?

FAQ ID -399

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How do I use EasyXtal Crystallization Tools?

FAQ ID -1105

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How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2923

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How do QuantiFast PCR Kits compare to QuantiTect PCR Kits for quantitative real-time PCR?

FAQ ID -1441

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How do Rotor-Gene Probe Kits compare with QuantiFast Probe Kits?

FAQ ID -2125

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How do the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit and QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination?

FAQ ID -783

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How do Unique Molecular Indexes (UMIs) improve quantification?

FAQ ID - 3669

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How do you achieve fast cycling, yet still deliver the same performance in PCR as that achieved with standard cycling?

FAQ ID -1430

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How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays?

FAQ ID — 3420

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How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays?

FAQ ID -2913

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How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR?

FAQ ID -2749

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How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array?

FAQ ID -2701

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How do you ensure that concentrated RNA is purified from saliva using the RNeasy Protect Saliva Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -1212

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How do you ensure that RNeasy buffers are RNase-free?

FAQ ID -113

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How does a Service Support Agreement provide defined budgeting for maintaining my BioRobot?

FAQ ID -1330

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How does HotStart PCR help minimize nonspecific amplification events?

FAQ ID -2676

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How does imidazole affect my quantitation of protein?

FAQ ID -132

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How does magnetic-particle carry-over in QIAsymphony eluates need to be handled?

FAQ ID -2166

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How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -2711

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How does QIAseq FastSelect work?

FAQ ID -147907

View

How does QIAsymphony SP keep cellular samples in suspension prior to pipetting so that samples do not settle?

FAQ ID -1905

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How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work?

FAQ ID -2779

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How does template quality influence the results with the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -2197

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How does the built-in QC control for complete bisulfite conversion of DNA work on PyroMark Q24?

FAQ ID -2095

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How does the DNA Protection work in the EpitTect Bisulfite kits?

FAQ ID -2410

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How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work?

FAQ ID -2341

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How does the liquid level detection work and what is the minimal detectable volume for the conductive tips of the BioRobot Universal?

FAQ ID - 3524

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How does the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination?

FAQ ID -2354

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How does the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit prevent traces of phenol from negatively affecting the reverse-transcription step in microarray experiments?

FAQ ID -2189

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How does the sealing efficiency of the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool compare to grease?

FAQ ID -1109

View

How does the stabilizing reagent in the PAXgene Saliva Collector stabilize saliva?

3814

View

How easy is it to scoop up a protein crystal with the lip around the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tools?

FAQ ID -1113

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How efficient is DNA removal by a gDNA Eliminator 96 plate compared with DNase digestion on an RNeasy 96 plate?

FAQ ID -1994

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How fast does the rotor spin during a run on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -2080

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How fast is the 6xHis-tagged protein purification process using Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?

FAQ ID -1605

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How great is the enrichment of miRNA when using the dedicated PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit compared to the PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?

FAQ ID -2495

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How important is the RNA purification process, for obtaining reliable qRT-PCR results?

FAQ ID -2655

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How is "Touchdown PCR" used to increase PCR specificity?

FAQ ID -75

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How is an antibody epitope determined?

FAQ ID -593

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How is ARMS technology superior to alternative methods such as dye terminator sequencing?

FAQ ID -2290

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How is stability and performance of these mericon Assay kits guaranteed?

FAQ ID -2542

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How is the hypothesis test performed in the REST software?

FAQ ID -2459

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How is the log graph threshold value (Ct) for the Rotor-Gene Q determined?

FAQ ID -2088

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How is the Pyromark Q48 cartridge to be cleaned?

FAQ ID - 3718

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How is the quality of proteins purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed and stabilized tissue?

FAQ ID - 3619

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How is the quality of the crystallization condition Screening Suites guaranteed?

FAQ ID -1126

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How is the RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini Kit different from the RNeasy Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -468

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How is the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit different from the classic RNeasy Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -2192

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How is the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit different from the RNeasy Plus Kit?

FAQ ID -2340

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How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination?

FAQ ID -3154

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How is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3908

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How is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase different from the standard recombinant Taq-B DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3921

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How long after first use can a reagent cartridge be stored for further use?

FAQ ID - 3650

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How long and at which temperature can plasma generated from whole blood in PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored?

FAQ ID - 3644

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How long are sample lysates stable in the fridge/ freezer?

FAQ ID - 143765

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How long can a reagent cartridge remain open without affecting my results?

FAQ ID - 3706

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How long can a tissue specimen stay in the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?

FAQ ID -3028

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How long can DNA converted with EpiTect Bisulfite Kits be stored before use in methylation specific PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?

FAQ ID -2002

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How long can eluates be stored after sample preparation using the EZ1 instruments or EZ2 Connect MDx and the EZ1 DSP Virus Kit?

FAQ ID - 3897

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How long can homogenates remain on the QIAsymphony SP without risk of RNA degradation?

FAQ ID -1941

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How long can I archive cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1623

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How long can I store an RLT lysate?

FAQ ID -3115

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How long can I store bacterial culture stabilized in RNAprotect Bacteria Reagent?

FAQ ID -614

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How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit?

FAQ ID -2350

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How long can I store the dilutions of the Control DNA Z1 standards at 2°C?

-8

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How long can I store the dilutions of the Male Control DNA M1 standards at 2–8°C?

FAQ ID - 3744

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How long can I store the reconsituted assay regarding QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96) at 4°C?

FAQ ID - 3934

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How long can I store the reconstituted Internal Control and the reconstituted Positive Control?

FAQ ID - 3997

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How long can primer and probes from the mericon Assay kits be kept at°C once reconstituted?

-20

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How long can reaction components incubate with VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature prior to PCR cycling?

FAQ ID - 3917

View

How long can saliva in PAXgene Saliva Collector tubes be stored at room temperature?

3815

View

How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at 2–8°C?

FAQ ID - 3379

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How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3378

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How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3508

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How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3492

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How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C?

FAQ ID - 3463

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How long can whole blood stabilized in PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored at room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3639

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How long does a QuantiFast Pathogen + IC run take on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -2452

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How long does a run take?

FAQ ID -2566

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How long does a saliva collection take?

3804

View

How long does a single run on the PyroMark Q24 take?

FAQ ID -2096

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How long does a typical in vitro translation reaction take with your large-scale EasyXpress protein synthesis kits?

FAQ ID -880

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How long does it take to generate results using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?

FAQ ID -2299

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How long does it take to set up a 96-well plate PCR reaction on the QIAgility?

FAQ ID -3066

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How long does the sample disruption with the TissueLyser LT take?

FAQ ID -2550

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How long is cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1613

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How long is fluorescence detectable in cells after transfection with fluorescently labeled siRNAs?

FAQ ID -392

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How long is the fixation time when using PAXgene Tissue FIX Container?

FAQ ID -3026

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How long is the fixation time?

FAQ ID -2519

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How long should I wait after transfection before enriching my transfected cells, validating knock down, and looking for phenotypic changes?

FAQ ID -2893

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How long should PCR fragments be for the SeqTarget System?

FAQ ID -2236

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How long should the amplicon be if I am using QuantiTect SYBR Green detection?

FAQ ID -553

View

How long will the intensity calibration procedure on the QIAxcel System take?

FAQ ID -1826

View

How magnetically responsive is BioMag?

FAQ ID -265

View

How many AAV genome copies can I load into the QIAcuity?

FAQ ID - 3977

View

How many assays can be multiplexed?

FAQ ID - 3862

View

How many cells can be used with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit?

FAQ ID -796

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How many cells can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit, and how much mitochondrial protein can be expected?

FAQ ID -1189

View

How many CpG sites are analyzed by the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?

2858

View

How many different genes and gene mutations are on a Somatic Mutation PCR Array?

FAQ ID -2427

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How many drops can be set up on a protein crystallization support?

FAQ ID -1110

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How many elution steps are recommended when using Glutathione Superflow resin?

FAQ ID -2175

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How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?

FAQ ID -2769

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How many extractions can I perform with a QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit, using the 2.4 ml or the 4.8 ml protocols?

FAQ ID - 3649

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How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate?

FAQ ID -2975

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How many freeze-thaw cycles can the master mix contained in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit tolerate?

FAQ ID -2357

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How many freeze-thaw cycles can the various reaction mixes in the EasyXpress Insect Kit II tolerate?

FAQ ID -1219

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How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array?

FAQ ID -2704

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How many LiquiChip beads are recommended for an xMAP experiment?

FAQ ID -1161

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How many miScript Precursor Assays do you offer?

FAQ ID -2213

View

How many molecules can be detected in the system?

153926

View

How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array?

FAQ ID -2911

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How many nucleotides of a homopolymer can be resolved in pyrosequencing?

FAQ ID -2871

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How many PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes can be processed per PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit well plate?

FAQ ID -2485

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How many PCR reactions can be performed for different scales of miScript Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -1990

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How many protein crystallization conditions are available at QIAGEN?

FAQ ID -1119

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How many reactions can be performed per well of the QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?

FAQ ID -2107

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How many reactions can be performed with one QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?

FAQ ID -2955

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How many reactions can I perform with the new QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?

FAQ ID -1425

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How many reporter dyes can be used in the same analysis using the LiquiChip Workstation?

FAQ ID -738

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How many samples can be processed per kit or per reagent cartridge for RNA purification on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1940

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How many samples can be processed per RNeasy Mini QIAcube kit?

FAQ ID -2332

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How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit?

FAQ ID - 3477

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How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?

FAQ ID -2490

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How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DNA Mini Kit and the Virus Blood 200 protocol?

FAQ ID -2159

View

How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?

FAQ ID -2935

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How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?

FAQ ID -2497

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How many samples can be run in parallel with the Rotor-Gene Q real-time PCR instrument?

FAQ ID -1519

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How many signal readings are taken during the real-time data acquisition on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -2083

View

How many template copies can I detect using QuantiTect Kits in real-time PCR?

FAQ ID -543

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How many times can the cartridges for PyroMark Q24 or PyroMark Q96 ID instruments be reused?

FAQ ID -2863

View

How many times can the CDTs, NDTs, and RDTs be used?

FAQ ID -2865

View

How many times can the Internal Controls used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be freeze-thawed?

FAQ ID -2599

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How many times can vacuum troughs be reused with the PyroMark Vacuum Preparation Stations?

FAQ ID -2848

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How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs?

FAQ ID -3105

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How many transfections can I perform with 20 nmol of HPP grade siRNA?

FAQ ID -367

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How much active protein can be expressed in-vitro using the EasyXpress Insect Kit II, and how much time does it take?

FAQ ID -1222

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How much buffer should be used for agarose gel electrophoresis?

FAQ ID -2257

View

How much can the mixed standard ?Ct values vary in the KRAS PCR kit?

FAQ ID -2307

View

How much cDNA is sufficient for real-time PCR detection of miRNA transcripts generated with the miScript System?

FAQ ID -1598

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How much circulating cell-free DNA can I expect from samples, and how can I quantify the yield?

FAQ ID - 3704

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How much detection reagent do you generally recommend for LiquiChip Assays?

FAQ ID -1159

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How much DNA and RNA can be expected from human blood cells?

FAQ ID -2950

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How much DNA does a bacterial cell contain?

FAQ ID -2947

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How much DNA does a human cell contain?

FAQ ID -2948

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How much DNA is needed in the PyroMark Q48?

FAQ ID - 3721

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How much DNA is obtained in the average PCR reaction?

FAQ ID -750

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How much DNA should be loaded per well of an agarose gel?

FAQ ID -2259

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How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay?

FAQ ID — 3418

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How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array?

FAQ ID — 3417

View

How much DNA starting sample is needed for analysis with a Somatic Mutations PCR Array? And Assay?

FAQ ID -2431

View

How much DNA/RNA can be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?

FAQ ID -2353

View

How much dye-labeled siRNA should I use to monitor transfection efficiency when using HiPerfect Transfection Reagent?

FAQ ID -1058

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How much protein can be produced with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Mega Kit?

FAQ ID -843

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How much protein does one vial of Protease in the QIAamp spin kits contain? What is the concentration of the resuspended Protease?

FAQ ID - 3520

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How much REPLI-g amplified mitochondrial DNA should be used in a subsequent PCR reaction?

FAQ ID -1320

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How much RNA does a bacterial cell contain?

FAQ ID -2949

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How much RNA does a typical mammalian cell contain?

FAQ ID -2946

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How much sample can be used with the Allprep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?

FAQ ID -1997

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How much sample can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?

FAQ ID -1992

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How much sample can I load for detecting host cell contamination?

FAQ ID - 3879

View

How much sample is required for each well for an ELISArray Kit?

FAQ ID -2908

View

How much sample material can I use for DNA/RNA purification with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?

FAQ ID -2351

View

How much solution can I add to an EasyXtal 15-Well Tool reservoir well?

FAQ ID -1114

View

How much space does the PyroMark Q24 instrument need?

FAQ ID -2098

View

How much space does the PyroMark Q48 Autoprep instrument need?

FAQ ID - 3693

View

How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1917

View

How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2927

View

How much template can I use in the reaction and what is the maximum volume of template that can be used in the QuantiTect Kits?

FAQ ID -1086

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How much time can be saved when using the RNeasy Mini QIAcube Kit?

FAQ ID -2335

View

How much time is needed for a LiquiChip assay point measurement?

FAQ ID -1162

View

How much time may the aspirated bone marrow sample be allowed to incubate before pipetting it into the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube?

FAQ ID -2504

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How much time will be saved when switching from standard cycling to fast cycling with QuantiFast Kits?

FAQ ID -1438

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How often can the Strep-Tactin Superflow Plus resin be reused?

FAQ ID -2169

View

How often should the alignment marker for the QIAxcel System be changed?

FAQ ID -1839

View

How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip adapter be changed on the QIAcube Connect?

FAQ ID - 141509

View

How often should the solutions in the Buffer Tray for the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced be replaced?

FAQ ID -1840

View

How precise is the QIAgility?

FAQ ID -3063

View

How pure are the CTCs enriched from blood samples using the AdnaTest?

3831

View

How pure should my protein be with the NexTal CubicPhase kits?

FAQ ID -2414

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How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit be?

FAQ ID -2193

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How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit be?

FAQ ID -2344

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How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -2730

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How sensitive is the LiquiChip Reader?

FAQ ID -1157

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How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored?

FAQ ID - 3585

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How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be transported?

FAQ ID - 3375

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How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped?

FAQ ID - 3489

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How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be transported?

FAQ ID - 3507

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How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored?

FAQ ID - 3490

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How should data be analyzed when the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit is used with miScript miRNA PCR Arrays or miScript Primer Assays?

FAQ ID - 3581

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How should DNA isolated on the QIAsymphony be stored?

FAQ ID -2165

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How should DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System be stored?

FAQ ID - 3502

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How should eluates produced with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA System be stored?

FAQ ID - 3657

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How should fluorescent labeled probes be stored?

FAQ ID -784

View

How should frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be thawed?

FAQ ID - 3586

View

How should gels be cast with the GelPilot Agarose so that optimal resolution is achieved?

FAQ ID -2258

View

How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment?

FAQ ID — 3421

View

How should I dissolve the lyophilized Anti-His and Tag Antibodies?

-100

View

How should I prepare buffy coat samples for use on the BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -1249

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How should I propagate pQE expression plasmids?

FAQ ID -58

View

How should I quantify RNA isolated with RNeasy Kits?

FAQ ID -32

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How should I reconstitute the lyophilized RNase-Free DNase Set with the RNeasy 96 kit?

FAQ ID -3003

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How should I store Anti·His and Tag·100 Antibodies?

FAQ ID -194

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How should I store cDNA produced using Omniscript Reverse Transcriptase?

FAQ ID -561

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How should I store plant material for DNA isolation using the DNeasy Plant Kit?

FAQ ID -114

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How should I store the REPLI-g amplification product?

FAQ ID -692

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How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes?

FAQ ID - 3495

View

How should I thaw frozen plasma samples?

FAQ ID - 3645

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How should QIAGEN Plasmid Purification Kits be stored and for how long?

FAQ ID -192

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How should RNeasy Kits be stored and how long are they stable?

FAQ ID -103

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How should samples be stored before purification using the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?

FAQ ID -2157

View

How should the GelPilot DNA Loading Dye be handled?

FAQ ID -1287

View

How should the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tubes be frozen after collection and for how long?

FAQ ID -2505

View

How should the samples be stored before purification of RNA with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?

FAQ ID -2984

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How should the samples be stored before purification with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?

FAQ ID -2934

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How should unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes be stored?

FAQ ID - 3634

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How should unused PAXgene Saliva Collector be stored?

3812

View

How stable is Phoenix Hot Start Taq when incubated in a PCR reaction mix at room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3898

View

How to prepare DNA prior to dPCR?

3778

View

How to quantitate DNA purified using the BioSprint 96?

FAQ ID -773

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How to store DNA from forensic samples eluted into water on the EZ1 biorobot in TE buffer instead?

FAQ ID -734

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How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage?

FAQ ID -3103

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How was it determined that the PhosphoSerine Antibody will bind phosphoserines only?

FAQ ID -579

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How well is DNA integrity preserved in PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3612

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How well is RNA integrity preserved in PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3611

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How will running less than 96 samples with the MagAttract 96 cador Pathogen kit affect usage of plasticware?

FAQ ID -2071

View

How will service work carried out on my QIAGEN BioRobot be documented?

FAQ ID -1331

View

How would I provide information on the QuantiTect Primer assays in publications when the sequence is confidential?

FAQ ID - 3593

View

I accidentally added RNAprotect Tissue Reagent to my cells, and now the cells are difficult to pellet. What can I do?

FAQ ID -364

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I accidentally stored Buffer RDD of the RNase-Free DNase Set at°C. Will it still function?

-20

View

I am seeing a precipitate after adding LyseBlue reagent to Buffer P1. What should I do about that?

FAQ ID -1045

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I am using an RNA library prep kit that is not listed in the QIAseq FastSelect handbook. Will QIAseq FastSelect work with my kit?

FAQ ID -147913

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I bound an 11 kb DNA fragment to a QIAquick column; is it completely lost?

FAQ ID -756

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I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?

FAQ ID - 3363

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I cannot see the LCD display fonts on the Sigma Centrifuge. How do I adjust the contrast?

FAQ ID -822

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I do not see any miRNA expression for my miRNAs of interest after performing single cell miRNA expression analysis with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit and miScript miRNA PCR Arrays or miScript Primer Assays. What could be the cause?

FAQ ID - 3577

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I don’t have any glassware in the lab, is the QIAwave kit still a good option for me?

FAQ ID - 3989

View

I have a Human Druggable Genome siRNA Set V2.0. Can I reorder the siRNAs from this set?

FAQ ID -1366

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I have accidentally pipetted beads when removing the eluate after cDNA cleanup. What should I do?

FAQ ID - 3572

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I left Buffer P1 at room temperature after addition of RNase A, what shall I do?

FAQ ID -859

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I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license?

FAQ ID - 3472

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I ran my RNA out on an agarose gel and can see lots of bands similar to a ladder. Why?

FAQ ID -745

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I received a kit containing the MinElute columns; however, they were left out for a while and not stored at 2–8°C upon receipt. Can I still use them?

FAQ ID - 3560

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I routinely heat an aliquot of the RNA eluate prior to my RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the eluate after the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA preparation?

FAQ ID -2513

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I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit?

FAQ ID -2342

View

I used to buy BioMag particles from a company by another name? Are your BioMag particles the same thing?

FAQ ID -263

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I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?

FAQ ID -3116

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I want to start with gene silencing (RNAi) experiments. Do you have informational literature?

FAQ ID -580

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I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?

FAQ ID -2360

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I would like to sequence my siRNA constructs. Does QIAGEN offer Sequencing Services for cloned siRNA?

FAQ ID -829

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I would like to stop during the library preparation procedure. When can I do that?

FAQ ID - 3687

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I would like to use the kit on another third party instrument. Who should I contact?

3803

View

If 400 µl are used as lysis volume, how do I concentrate the lysate? (Otherwise the DNA would be too diluted.)

FAQ ID - 143766

View

If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed?

FAQ ID -2977

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If a QuantiTect Primer Assay has more than one version number, does this mean that earlier assay versions may not work?

FAQ ID -1136

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If both MaXtract Low Density and High Density is suitable for an application, which type is preferable to use?

FAQ ID -1310

View

If FlexiPlate siRNA was accidentally redissolved in siRNA Suspension Buffer instead of water, resulting in a 2x buffer, would it affect performance of the siRNAs?

FAQ ID -1477

View

If housekeeping and target genes differ significantly in abundance, will they both be amplified with equal efficiency using the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -2129

View

If I am using BioMag Streptavidin to capture biotinylated oligos, how can I then remove the oligos?

FAQ ID -279

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If I am working with a difficult-to-transfect cell type or if I obtain only weak silencing effects what can I do?

FAQ ID -2265

View

If I cannot find a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my target gene in rat, can I use the assays for the orthologous genes in mouse and human?

FAQ ID -1145

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If I cannot order FlexiPlate siRNA online, how do I order?

FAQ ID -1371

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If I want to use BioMag particles, do I have to buy a QIAGEN magnet too or can I use one that I already have?

FAQ ID -266

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If less than 48/96 samples are being processed, is it possible to leave positions empty with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?

FAQ ID -2492

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If new dyes or chemistries appear on the real-time PCR market, will Rotor-Gene Q be capable of running those dyes?

FAQ ID -2087

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If orders cannot be placed online, how can QIAgenes be ordered?

FAQ ID -2046

View

If pQE40 is used to express a fusion protein with DHFR, can the DHFR be cleaved afterwards?

FAQ ID -513

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If template abundance differs significantly between housekeeping and target gene, are both amplified equally efficient with the QuantiTect Multiplex Kits?

FAQ ID -718

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If the M500 method is used with the QIAxcel System, does a new DNA reference marker table have to be created?

FAQ ID -1856

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If Vapor-Lock is used to overlay PCR reactions, which volume should be entered as reaction volume in the Rotor-Gene Q Software?

FAQ ID -2150

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In the REST software, what is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on the 'Results' page?

FAQ ID -2455

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In the results table generated with the QIAxcel System, what does "normalized area" mean?

FAQ ID -1854

View

In which channels can you detect the CGT dPCR assays?

FAQ ID - 3863

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In which format can PyroMark CpG Assays be ordered?

FAQ ID -2824

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In which formats are crystallization condition Screening Suites available?

FAQ ID -1127

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In which solution can I keep my protein for the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?

FAQ ID -2416

View

In which tubes is clot detection possible on QIAsymphony?

FAQ ID - 3589

View

Investigator Quantiplex and Quantiplex Pro: What do I have to consider if I am using Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3?

FAQ ID -2570

View

Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: On which real-time cyclers is the kit validated?

FAQ ID - 3741

View

Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?

FAQ ID - 3743

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Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ: Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the kit?

FAQ ID - 3742

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Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Can the kit be run on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID - 3729

View

Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or QuantStudio 5 Real-Time PCR System?

FAQ ID - 3732

View

Investigator Quantiplex Pro: On which real-time cyclers is the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit validated?

FAQ ID - 3728

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Investigator Quantiplex Pro: Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the kit?

FAQ ID - 3730

View

Investigator Quantiplex: Do I have to calibrate new dyes on my Applied Biosystems 7500 or 7500 Fast Real-Time PCR System?

FAQ ID -2571

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Investigator Quantiplex: For which real-time cyclers has the kit been validated?

FAQ ID -2567

View

Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?

FAQ ID -2569

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Investigator Quantiplex: Which version of the Rotor Gene-Q software can be used to run the kit?

FAQ ID -2568

View

Is 2 kb the minimal gDNA fragment size for REPLI-g Whole Genome Amplification?

FAQ ID -682

View

Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the QIAquant to obtain reproducible results?

153920

View

Is a passive internal reference dye, like ROX, required on the Rotor-Gene Q to obtain reproducible results?

FAQ ID -2079

View

Is a restriction digest necessary for DNA isolated from PAXgene Saliva samples before performing a dPCR run using the QIAcuity?

3829

View

Is a saliva collection device provided in the RNeasy Protect Saliva Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -1213

View

Is a special processing protocol needed?

FAQ ID -2523

View

Is a special processing protocol needed?

FAQ ID -3035

View

Is a standard curve needed in dPCR?

3786

View

Is an additional proteinase K digest possible with DNeasy PowerSoil Kit and DNeasy PowerLyzer Kit?

FAQ ID - 3725

View

Is cDNA generated with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for use in microarray analysis?

FAQ ID -1587

View

Is clot detection possible on the QIAsymphony?

FAQ - ID 3588

View

Is dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) immunogenic?

FAQ ID -471

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Is DNA extraction from the samples needed?

FAQ ID - 3873

View

Is double centrifugation required for plasma processing?

FAQ ID - 3643

View

Is dPCR sensitive to inhibition?

FAQ ID - 3880

View

Is Factor SB of the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit the same as Factor MP of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -1049

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Is FlexiTube GeneSolution available for other scales than the 1 nmol scale?

FAQ ID -1666

View

Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?

FAQ ID -2959

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Is GFP excited and detected by the green laser of the LiquiChip System?

FAQ ID -737

View

Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector?

FAQ ID -2783

View

Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?

FAQ ID -2348

View

Is it good to pool multiple RNA replicates to detect expression changes that are consistently reproducible?

FAQ ID -2663

View

Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue?

FAQ ID -3034

View

Is it necessary to clean a processor normally used for formalin-fixed tissue before using it with PAXgene Tissue fixed tissue?

FAQ ID - 3607

View

Is it necessary to clean up cDNA prepared with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1610

View

Is it necessary to include a genomic DNA removal step with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1614

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Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?

FAQ ID -2373

View

Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube Connect?

FAQ ID - 141496

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Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube?

FAQ ID -1415

View

Is it necessary to place the lids of the elution tube and column into the slots of the rotor adapter during processing on the QIAcube?

148736

View

Is it necessary to reanalyze a plate with VPF (Volume Precision Factor) that was already processed using a QIAcuity instrument that was purchased in 2020?

3771

View

Is it normal that the binding capacity of GST-resins decreases with flow rate?

FAQ ID -2174

View

Is it possible to adjust the Lysis Buffer volume used with the Qproteome Bacterial Protein Preparation Kit?

FAQ ID -841

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Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue blocks?

FAQ ID -2524

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Is it possible to archive PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3038

View

Is it possible to buy the EZ Competent Cells of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Plus Kit separately?

FAQ ID -763

View

Is it possible to change voltage set-up from 110V to 230V on the QIAcuity instruments?

3761

View

Is it possible to clean up a methylation reaction containing bisulfite with QIAquick Cleanup Kits?

FAQ ID -519

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Is it possible to cleave the 6xHis-tag from an expressed protein?

FAQ ID -140

View

Is it possible to collect intact mitochondria before or after the density gradient centrifugation step of the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation protocol?

FAQ ID -1187

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Is it possible to edit the sample sheet after the run in the QIAquant Software?

153955

View

Is it possible to edit the sample sheet in the Rotor-Gene Q software after a PCR run?

FAQ ID -2092

View

Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA from the QIAprep Spin Miniprep columns with buffer containing Potassium Phosphate?

FAQ ID -854

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Is it possible to elute plasmid DNA obtained with the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit in nuclease-free water?

FAQ ID -1355

View

Is it possible to embed PAXgene Tissue fixed and stabilized samples in Optimal Cutting Temperature (OCT) medium for freezing?

FAQ ID -2525

View

Is it possible to establish an internet connection with QIAquant instrument?

153952

View

Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?

FAQ ID -3119

View

Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?

FAQ ID -3120

View

Is it possible to fix over a weekend?

FAQ ID -3027

View

Is it possible to get a Custom RT2 Profiler PCR Array, cat. # 330131, with primer assays targeting transcripts of different species, e.g. assays targeting transcripts from mouse and assays targeting transcripts from human, on one plate?

FAQ ID - 3710

View

Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous PCR run on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -2093

View

Is it possible to import a standard curve from a previous run?

153947

View

Is it possible to increase nucleic acid concentrations when following protocols on the BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -1232

View

Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into the processing?

FAQ ID -3037

View

Is it possible to integrate the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER into tissue processing?

FAQ ID - 3608

View

Is it possible to interrupt the PAXgene Blood DNA kit protocol?

FAQ ID - 3503

View

Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit?

FAQ ID -2972

View

Is it possible to isolate both RNA and recombinant 6xHis-tagged protein from the same sample?

FAQ ID -532

View

Is it possible to isolate DNA from bone marrow with the QIAamp DNA Blood Kits?

FAQ ID -563

View

Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?

FAQ ID -2995

View

Is it possible to isolate free genomic DNA using the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?

FAQ ID -358

View

Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?

FAQ ID - 3483

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Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?

FAQ ID - 3476

View

Is it possible to isolate single stranded DNA (ssDNA) with the QIAEX II Kit from agarose or polyacrylamide gels?

FAQ ID -576

View

Is it possible to manually process PAXgene Tissue treated samples without using an automated processor?

FAQ ID -3036

View

Is it possible to measure the proteolytic activity of proteins on the surface of exosomes that were isolated with ExoEasy?

FAQ ID - 3599

View

Is it possible to microdissect PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissues?

FAQ ID -2531

View

Is it possible to modify QIAsymphony protocols?

FAQ ID -1903

View

Is it possible to modify the transduction protocol for Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays to save some pipetting steps?

FAQ ID - 3709

View

Is it possible to normalize to more or less than 500 ng with the SeqTarget System if needed?

FAQ ID -2235

View

Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?

FAQ ID -3124

View

Is it possible to perform a UNG treatment when using QuantiTect kits?

FAQ ID -564

View

Is it possible to perform immunoprecipitation (IP) directly on protein fractions from the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?

FAQ ID -855

View

Is it possible to perform laser microdissection with tissues stabilized with RNAprotect Tissue reagent?

FAQ ID -608

View

Is it possible to place the PAXgene Saliva Collector tube directly on the QIAsymphony SP instrument sample rack?

3825

View

Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run?

FAQ ID -3033

View

Is it possible to process formalin-fixed and PAXgene Tissue fixed samples together in one run?

FAQ ID - 3606

View

Is it possible to process volumes of saliva from the PAXgene Saliva Collector other than the 400 or 1000 µl from the standard protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Midi Kit using the QIAsymphony SP instrument?

3824

View

Is it possible to purchase Buffer VXL which is part of the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit, (Cat No.: 54104, 54106) separately?

FAQ ID - 3712

View

Is it possible to purify a GST-tagged protein under denaturing conditions using Glutathione Superflow?

FAQ ID -2172

View

Is it possible to purify and normalize long range PCRs produced with PCR kits from other vendors for the SeqTarget System?

FAQ ID -2243

View

Is it possible to purify DNA from the whole sample of a PAXgene Saliva Collector in one preparation?

3826

View

Is it possible to purify viral RNA using FastLane Cell RT-PCR Kits?

FAQ ID -1484

View

Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?

FAQ ID -3155

View

Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?

FAQ ID -3161

View

Is it possible to scale up QuantiTect Reverse Transcription reactions to allow use of larger amounts of RNA?

FAQ ID -1063

View

Is it possible to scale up sample volume and reaction volume?

FAQ ID - 3884

View

Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?

FAQ ID -2996

View

Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?

FAQ ID - 3362

View

Is it possible to store nucleic acids extracted using the SpeedXtract Virus Kit?

FAQ ID - 3680

View

Is it possible to store TAGzyme enzymes at°C?

-80

View

Is it possible to store the lysates? How can the lysates be stored?

FAQ ID - 3973

View

Is it possible to synthesize membrane proteins using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?

FAQ ID -602

View

Is it possible to test the efficiency of FastSelect rRNA removal by using a Bioanalyzer, etc.?

FAQ ID -147916

View

Is it possible to transfect DNA into insect cell lines such as Drosophila melanogaster S2?

FAQ ID -397

View

Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?

FAQ ID -3162

View

Is it possible to use a QIAzol lysate for the isolation of RNA from tissue on the BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -573

View

Is it possible to use a standard processor — the kind used routinely for formalin-fixed samples — for dehydration and paraffin infiltration of PAXgene Tissue treated samples?

FAQ ID -3032

View

Is it possible to use ABI instruments without ROX as a passive reference?

FAQ ID - 3889

View

Is it possible to use different sample types in one run with the MagAttract 96 cador Pathogen Kit?

FAQ ID -2072

View

Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols for extraction of biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3043

View

Is it possible to use formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) kits and protocols to isolate biomolecules from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3610

View

Is it possible to use frozen cell pellets with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit?

FAQ ID -835

View

Is it possible to use less than 1 mg of protein with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?

FAQ ID -599

View

Is it possible to use LiquiChip beads for FACS applications?

FAQ ID -733

View

Is it possible to use lower siRNA concentrations with FlexiTube siRNA Premix?

FAQ ID -2264

View

Is it possible to use Lyse&Spin baskets?

FAQ ID - 143762

View

Is it possible to use MaXtract for an organic extraction with a mixture of phenol and BCP (1 bromine chlorpropane)?

-3

View

Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?

FAQ ID -3160

View

Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-Trisystem Vector with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?

FAQ ID -1225

View

Is it possible to use QIAGEN's pQE-TriSystem Vectors with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Insect Kit?

FAQ ID -876

View

Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?

FAQ ID -3139

View

Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits?

FAQ ID -2969

View

Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?

FAQ ID -2968

View

Is it possible to use the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit in batch format?

FAQ ID -1069

View

Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?

FAQ ID -3138

View

Is it possible to use the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit with bacterial RNA?

FAQ ID -785

View

Is it possible to use the REPLI-g WTA Single Cell kit to amplify miRNA?

FAQ ID - 3563

View

Is it possible to use the touch down PCR option on QIAquant with two acquisition points in the same channel?

153925

View

Is magnetic particle carry-over in the eluates on the BioSprint 96 normal?

FAQ ID -2073

View

Is mitochondrial DNA isolated with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2030

View

Is mRNA isolation necessary for sensitive RT-PCR?

FAQ ID -111

View

Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary adherent cell types?

FAQ ID -2268

View

Is one able to use FlexiTube siRNA Premix for transfection of primary suspension cell types?

FAQ ID -2269

View

Is Phoenix Hot Start Taq capable of multiplex PCR?

FAQ ID - 3901

View

Is plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid Purification Kits suitable for in vitro transcription?

FAQ ID -1

View

Is Q-Solution required for PCR with QIAGEN's PCR kits?

FAQ ID -380

View

Is QIAGEN carrier RNA sold separately?

FAQ ID -351

View

Is QIAseq FastSelect truly as easy as combining a reagent with RNA and ramping down the temperature?

FAQ ID -147909

View

Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?

FAQ ID -3182

View

Is restriction enzyme digestion required?

FAQ ID - 3875

View

Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?

FAQ ID -2960

View

Is RNA co-purified with DNA using QIAsymphony DNA Tissue protocols?

FAQ ID -1920

View

Is RNA from red blood cells also isolated when RNA is extracted from a PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA Tube?

FAQ ID -2509

View

Is RNA preserved in saliva collected in PAXgene Saliva Collector?

3818

View

Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?

FAQ ID -3143

View

Is RNAprotect Bacteria Reagent compatible with the RNeasy Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -797

View

Is RNAprotect Cell Reagent provided in the RNeasy Protect Cell Kit available separately?

FAQ ID -1217

View

Is sample pretreatment required for purifying RNA on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1938

View

Is sequence information for HP Validated siRNAs provided in the FlexiTube format?

FAQ ID -1665

View

Is the 260/230 nm absorbance ratio specified for RNA derived from the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?

FAQ ID -2514

View

Is the cDNA cleanup step in the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit workflow absolutely required?

FAQ ID - 3571

View

Is the CpG software included in the PyroMark instruments to study methylation status?

FAQ ID -2842

View

Is the DNA extracted with the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long-range PCR (>1 kb) and long-read DNA sequencing?

3760

View

Is the DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA FFPE Advanced Kits suitable for downstream applications that require more intact DNA such as long range PCR (>1 kb) and long read DNA sequencing?

153891

View

Is the E. coli Host Strain M15[pREP4] resistant to Zeocin?

FAQ ID -842

View

Is the EasyXtal Tool compatible with liquid-handling systems and visualization robots?

FAQ ID -1118

View

Is the expression level of miRNA precursors lower compared to that of mature miRNAs?

FAQ ID -2807

View

Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?

FAQ ID - 3965

View

Is the kit compatible with unpurified in-process samples?

FAQ ID - 3994

View

Is the master mix of QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR aliquoted into several tubes to prevent cross-contamination?

FAQ ID -1697

View

Is the Microbial qPCR mastermix used in the Microbial DNA assay and in the Microbial DNA arrays free of genomic bacterial DNA?

FAQ ID - 3535

View

Is the miRNA reverse transcription control (miRTC) used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3573

View

Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples?

FAQ ID -2526

View

Is the morphology after H&E staining comparable to formalin-fixed samples?

FAQ ID -3039

View

Is the performance of the HiPerFect HTS Reagent affected if it has accidentally been stored at°C?

-20

View

Is the pH indicated in the formulation sheet for Screening Suite buffers the final pH?

FAQ ID -1123

View

is the purity of nucleic acids isolated with the PAXgene Tissue Kits?

FAQ ID -3044

View

Is the QIAprep&amp CRISPR Kit also applicable to other gene-editing technologies such as TALENs and ZFN?

3787

View

Is the QIAquant equipped with a temperature gradient function?

153923

View

Is the QIAsymphony RNA Kit compatible with stabilized samples?

FAQ ID -1944

View

Is the QIAxcel Advanced discontinued?

FAQ ID - 3983

View

Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing?

FAQ ID - 3517

View

Is the quality and size of DNA extracted with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kit good enough to generate DNA-libraries for next generation sequencing (NGS)?

FAQ ID - 3518

View

Is the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR +R Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?

FAQ ID -2653

View

Is the QuantiFast Probe PCR +ROX Vial Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?

FAQ ID -2651

View

Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?

FAQ ID -2652

View

Is the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit suitable for miRNA amplification?

FAQ ID -1609

View

Is the random biotin labeling of proteins expressed with your EasyXpress Biotin Labeling Kit as sensitive as labeling with radioactivity?

FAQ ID -875

View

Is the Reagent Bottle Rack, Grey, QC2 (cat. no. 9026197) compatible with the QIAcube Classic instrument?

FAQ ID - 3993

View

Is the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers?

FAQ ID - 3540

View

Is the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit compatible with adapters and amplification primers from other suppliers?

FAQ ID - 3552

View

Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?

FAQ ID -2343

View

Is the SeqTarget System compatible with standard-size PCRs?

FAQ ID -2241

View

Is the software of the QIAquant compatible with 21CFR part11?

153930

View

Is the surface tension of the crystallization supports of the EasyXtal 15-Well Tools similar to that of a siliconized cover slide?

FAQ ID -1107

View

Is the T790M mutation included in the EGFR PCR kit?

FAQ ID -2314

View

Is the TurboCapture Microplate Holder Type B compatible with the Biomek FX robotic workstation?

FAQ ID -1040

View

Is the virus inactivated during the procedure?

3800

View

Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.

FAQ ID -2349

View

Is there a charge for user training on the QIAsymphony SP System?

FAQ ID -1900

View

Is there a critical step during upfront sample handling when using the PAXgene Blood RNA MDX kit?

FAQ ID -2493

View

Is there a limit to the size of proteins that can be purified using the Qproteome Glycoprotein Kits?

FAQ ID -1071

View

Is there a quality difference between CompactPrep Plasmid Mega and Giga and the CompactPrep Plasmid Midi and Maxi Kits?

FAQ ID -1882

View

Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers?

FAQ ID -2980

View

Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?

FAQ ID -2331

View

Is there a stopping point in the protocol for Suspended Cells using the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit?

FAQ ID -837

View

Is there a user manual available for the PyroMark Assay design software?

FAQ ID -2851

View

Is there a way to compare the environmental impacts of the kit?

FAQ ID - 3991

View

Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?

View

Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?

FAQ ID -2346

View

Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?

FAQ ID - 3460

View

Is there anything to consider when processing cultured cells on coated cultivation dishes? Are additional purification steps required to eliminate or reduce coating reagents such as Poly-L-Lysine?

3791

View

Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -3185

View

Is there something to consider when working with transduced cells treated with Polybrene?

3790

View

Is this available without glycerol?

FAQ ID - 3959

View

Is TopTaq DNA Polymerase a hot-start polymerase?

FAQ ID -1748

View

Is training of lab personnel included with the purchase of a BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -1239

View

Is V600E the only mutation that can be detected with the codon 600 assay in the BRAF Pyro Kit?

FAQ ID -2382

View

Is VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?

FAQ ID - 3916

View

Is VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase available as a hot start enzyme?

FAQ ID - 3929

View

Is your Nuclease-Free Water fluorescence-free?

FAQ ID -1291

View

May I continue with the saliva collection if I accidentally unscrewed the funnel prematurely?

3809

View

May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit?

FAQ ID -2698

View

Microscopic/visual confirmation of successfully sorted cells can be used to optimize sorting conditions. Can stained cells be used?

FAQ ID - 3559

View

My ADAPT report states "Run Invalid" and does not display any sample results. Why is this?

FAQ ID -2306

View

My BioMag is about to expire, is it still any good?

FAQ ID -268

View

My BioRobot 9604 came with several Accessory Applications. Is it recommended I run these protocols?

FAQ ID -872

View

My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?

FAQ ID - 3956

View

My overall RNA yield is fine but RT-PCR performance poor – how can I improve this?

FAQ ID - 3945

View

My QuantiTect Master Mix did not freeze at degrees. Is it still ok to use?

-20

View

My samples are expected to have low concentrations. Can I load more sample into the workflow or more lysate into the PCR reaction?

FAQ ID - 3995

View

My samples are highly fragmented. Is the dPCR result for resDNA quantification accurate?

FAQ ID - 3877

View

On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?

FAQ ID -2978

View

On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?

FAQ ID -2973

View

On which cyclers can the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit be used?

FAQ ID -2596

View

On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?

FAQ ID -2719

View

QuantiTect Primer Assays are bioinformatically validated, genomewide primer sets. What does “bioinformatically validated” mean?

FAQ ID -1982

View

Should cells be washed before collection?

FAQ ID - 3544

View

Should cells be washed before collection?

FAQ ID - 3556

View

Should I input the dilution factor of my samples into the LiquiChip Analyser Software dilution factors of samples?

FAQ ID -1211

View

Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays?

FAQ ID -2747

View

Should I use Ni-NTA Agarose in column or batch format for purification of 6xHis-tagged proteins?

FAQ ID -147

View

Should I use Omniscript or Sensiscript for reverse transcription of low-copy mRNA?

FAQ ID -297

View

Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?

FAQ ID -2900

View

Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the neomycin-resistance marker, the puromycin-resistance marker, or the GFP reporter gene?

FAQ ID -2882

View

Should miScript PreAMP Primer Mixes be used in conjunction with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3570

View

Should sample lysate volumes be exactly 200 µL, 500 µL, or 1000 µL when loaded on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2031

View

Should total RNA or small enriched RNA be used as the starting material for the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3659

View

The disruption of my sample worked well with the TissueLyser LT, but I am not satisfied with the RNA yield. What do you suggest?

FAQ ID -2555

View

The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?

FAQ ID -2750

View

The Gel Cartridge is installed and all status indicators for the QIAxcel System are good but when clicking the "RUN" button, nothing happens. The green highlight goes down the Sequence?

FAQ ID -1850

View

The integrity of my DNA sample (e.g. QIAxcel Connect) is bad.

FAQ ID - 3958

View

The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?

FAQ ID -3117

View

The Multiflow Dispense Head on my BioRobot is not dispensing the correct amount of liquid. What can I do?

FAQ ID -652

View

The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?

FAQ ID -2766

View

The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?

FAQ ID -2767

View

The QIAsymphony RNA kit uses RLT plus as lysis buffer. Can samples lysed in RLT and then stored in the freezer be used on the QIAsymphony?

FAQ ID - 3533

View

The Sigma Centrifuge makes a loud noise at low speeds which disappears at higher speeds, when using the 2x96-well plate rotor. What is the problem?

FAQ ID -776

View

There is no barcode on the QIAsymphony cooling adapter, and the instrument asks for one. What do you suggest I do?

FAQ ID - 3532

View

Total RNA from what sample types are compatible with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3660

View

We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyze the results. Any suggestions?

FAQ ID - 3621

View

Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?

FAQ ID -2912

View

What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation?

FAQ ID -630

View

What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?

FAQ ID -499

View

What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?

FAQ ID - 3474

View

What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?

FAQ ID - 3919

View

What annealing temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?

FAQ ID - 3932

View

What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -849

View

What applications are offered on the QIAcube Connect MDx instrument?

148726

View

What applications are offered on the QIAcube?

FAQ ID -1403

View

What applications can the QIAquant be used for?

153927

View

What are clusters analyzed in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?

FAQ ID -2201

View

What are common sized libraries observed on a TapeStation, Bioanalyzer, or similar instruments?

FAQ ID - 3837

View

What are critical steps during CTC enrichment?

3830

View

What are EasyXtal 15-well Tools used for?

FAQ ID -2217

View

What are Elution Microtube adapters and Microplate adapters used in the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit, and how can I order them?

FAQ ID -646

View

What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?

FAQ ID -2720

View

What are exo-resistant random hexamers used in the REPLI-g reaction?

FAQ ID -710

View

What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?

FAQ ID -2359

View

What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?

FAQ ID - 3462

View

What are possible reasons for reduced DNA yields with REPLI-g Kits?

FAQ ID -2148

View

What are Principal Components analyzed in Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?

FAQ ID -2200

View

What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure?

FAQ ID - 3663

View

What are recommended stopping points in the procedure of the EZ1&2 DNA FFPE Kits?

3753

View

FAQ ID - 3950

View

153892

View

What are some of the assays that are adaptable to the LiquiChip System?

FAQ ID -477

View

What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel?

FAQ ID -1059

View

What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility?

FAQ ID -3064

View

What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H- (P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?

FAQ ID - 3960

View

What are the advantages of EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-(P7600) versus wild type M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase (P7040)?

FAQ ID - 3838

View

What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?

FAQ ID -2721

View

What are the advantages of REPLI-g over conventional DNA sample processing and amplification methods?

FAQ ID -686

View

What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?

FAQ ID -2921

View

What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?

FAQ ID -2786

View

What are the amplicon lengths of the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?

FAQ ID -2289

View

What are the applications the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool can be used for?

FAQ ID -1111

View

What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?

FAQ ID -3158

View

What are the calculated molecular weights of the TAGZyme enzymes?

FAQ ID -329

View

What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0?

FAQ ID -2849

View

What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?

FAQ ID -2669

View

What are the compatibilities of different reagents with Ni-NTA matrices?

FAQ ID -49

View

What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2914

View

What are the corresponding QIAGEN names for former Biotage instruments?

FAQ ID -2285

View

What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies?

FAQ ID -2759

View

What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification?

FAQ ID -665

View

What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry and PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?

FAQ ID -3165

View

What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?

FAQ ID -2666

View

What are the differences between QIAxcel Advanced and QIAxcel Connect?

FAQ ID - 3857

View

What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?

FAQ ID -2358

View

What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube Connect MDx?

148729

View

What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube?

FAQ ID -1407

View

What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAsymphony SP System?

FAQ ID -1901

View

What are the dimensions of the TissueLyser LT?

FAQ ID -2545

View

What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies?

FAQ ID -385

View

What are the effects of low A260/A230 ratios in RNA preparations on downstream applications?

FAQ ID -2248

View

What are the excitation and emission wavelengths of the reporter and classification lasers of the LiquiChip Instrument?

FAQ ID -479

View

What are the expected average DNA yields from plant extractions on the BioSprint 96?

FAQ ID -771

View

What are the expected DNA yields from different tissues using the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -45

View

What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2990

View

What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1919

View

What are the expected PCR results when using EpiTect Control DNA on untreated or bisulfite-converted DNA?

FAQ ID -2011

View

What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?

FAQ ID - 3481

View

What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?

FAQ ID - 3475

View

What are the expected yields of total RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1942

View

What are the features and benefits of the QIAexpress 6xHis Tag System?

FAQ ID -193

View

What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays, for example, in terms of design and validation?

FAQ ID -2821

View

What are the features of the expression vector used for QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia?

FAQ ID -2050

View

What are the features of the new PyroMark Q96 ID software 2.5?

FAQ ID -2867

View

What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?

FAQ ID -2674

View

What are the heating/cooling rates in the QIAquant instruments?

153919

View

What are the ideal and the largest PCR amplicon sizes when using the EpiTect MSP Kit?

FAQ ID -2004

View

What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment?

FAQ ID -2758

View

What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment?

FAQ ID -2775

View

What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC?

FAQ ID -2449

View

What are the limits of detection of the QIAxcel Connect?

FAQ ID - 3853

View

What are the LIMS capacity of the software?

153949

View

What are the main differences between other magnetic beads and the BioMag particles?

FAQ ID -272

View

What are the main differences between Rotor-Gene and QuantiTect or QuantiFast PCR Kits?

FAQ ID -2119

View

What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2438

View

What are the major differences between QIAseq Targeted RNA Panel TCR kit and previous QIAseq Immune Repertoire RNA library kit?

FAQ ID - 3999

View

What are the maximum culture volumes to use with the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi or Maxi Kit?

FAQ ID -167

View

What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?

FAQ ID -3147

View

What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?

FAQ ID — 3393

View

What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?

FAQ ID -3112

View

What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?

FAQ ID -3111

View

What are the molecular weights of proteins in the 6xHis Protein Ladder?

FAQ ID -169

View

What are the most commonly used protease inhibitors?

FAQ ID -53

View

What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?

FAQ ID -2657

View

What are the new features of the EasyXpress Insect Kit II compared to the original Protein Synthesis Insect kit?

FAQ ID -1220

View

What are the recommended culture and buffer volumes for a very low-copy plasmid?

FAQ ID -168

View

What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2993

View

What are the recommended storage conditions for the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit and its components?

FAQ ID -1077

View

What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?

FAQ ID -2355

View

What are the ResDNA Quant Kit components?

FAQ ID - 3878

View

What are the restriction sites of the pDrive Vector in the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?

FAQ ID -160

View

What are the sequences of the FlexiTube siRNAs?

FAQ ID -851

View

What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?

FAQ - 3426

View

What are the starting volumes of homogenate for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1939

View

What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?

FAQ ID -3157

View

What are the storage conditions and expiry date of QIAcuity consumables?

3780

View

What are the storage conditions for the mericon Assay kits?

FAQ ID -2540

View

What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?

FAQ ID — 3394

View

What are the storage conditions?

FAQ ID - 3748

View

What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies?

FAQ ID -2760

View

What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?

FAQ ID -2784

View

What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?

FAQ ID -2924

View

What are the Tms of PCR products obtained using the miScript System?

FAQ ID -1599

View

What are the turnaround times for FlexiPlate siRNA orders?

FAQ ID -1478

View

What are the typical yields obtained from Buccal swabs on BioSprint 96?

FAQ ID -3071

View

What are the yield and integrity of nucleic acids isolated from blocks of PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3613

View

What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits?

FAQ ID -2408

View

What are your recommendations for cotransfecting several plasmids?

FAQ ID -124

View

What are your recommendations for PCR template preparation for use with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?

FAQ ID -1221

View

What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?

FAQ ID -2491

View

What blocking reagents do you recommend for chemiluminescent detection using Penta-, Tetra-, and RGS-His antibodies?

FAQ ID -1093

View

What buffer conditions give the best resolution for agarose gel electrophoresis?

FAQ ID -2256

View

What buffer should be used to dilute cDNA made using the miScript Reverse Transcription Kit?

FAQ ID -1601

View

What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly?

FAQ ID -1834

View

What can be done if the protein pellet does not solubilize completely using the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -1580

View

What can be the reason for low DNA yields after normalization with the SeqTarget System?

FAQ ID -2239

View

What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA?

FAQ ID -728

View

What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3675

View

What can I do if I don't see the fill line anymore due to saliva bubbles?

3807

View

What can I do to stimulate saliva flow?

3805

View

What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried?

FAQ ID -572

View

What can I use to isolate RNA smaller than 200 nucleotides?

FAQ ID -115

View

What cell line does QIAGEN use for quality control testing of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?

FAQ ID -2885

View

What cell lines can I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?

FAQ ID -2891

View

What cell lines have been tested with the Fastlane Cell cDNA Kit?

FAQ ID -1175

View

What cell lines have been tested with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?

FAQ ID -1205

View

What color channels are used?

FAQ ID - 3885

View

What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing?

FAQ ID -2826

View

What controls are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits to ensure reliable results?

FAQ ID -2291

View

What controls should be used for normalizing miRNA real-time PCR data obtained with the miScript System?

FAQ ID -1596

View

What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?

FAQ ID -3175

View

What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?

FAQ ID -3176

View

What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?

FAQ ID — 3412

View

What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies?

FAQ ID -2771

View

What data documentation does QIAGEN's Sequencing Service provide for customers?

FAQ ID -832

View

What dedicated QIAcube Connect kits are available?

FAQ ID - 141504

View

What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?

148743

View

What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?

FAQ ID -2337

View

What denaturation temperature should be used in cycling conditions?

FAQ ID - 3918

View

What denaturation temperature should be used in the cycling conditions?

FAQ ID - 3931

View

What detection reagents (reporter fluorophores) do you recommend for the LiquiChip System?

FAQ ID -480

View

What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx?

FAQ ID -809

View

What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -1246

View

What do I do if I cannot see amplification in the FAM channel in my KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?

FAQ ID -2297

View

What do I do if I get amplification in my no template control (NTC) with the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?

FAQ ID -2298

View

What do I need in order to set up an RNAi experiment?

FAQ ID -2757

View

What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay?

FAQ ID -2707

View

What do I need to provide when ordering a miScript Target Protector?

FAQ ID -2251

View

What do the GTIN, UDI and REF abbreviations mean on the label of any QIAGEN box?

FAQ ID - 3697

View

What do you mean by “Quantification of locus representation” in REPLI-g WGA product?

FAQ ID -698

View

What do you recommend for isolating RNA from more than 100 mg of plant tissue?

FAQ ID -570

View

What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)?

FAQ ID -618

View

What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy?

FAQ ID -942

View

What does 'QIAGEN Certified Solution' for Protein Crystallization mean?

FAQ ID -1121

View

What does a typical EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay or Array include?

FAQ ID -2740

View

What does PAXgene Tissue FIX contain?

FAQ ID -3020

View

What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain?

FAQ ID - 3513

View

What does QIAGEN use for a positive control in precursor detection experiments?

FAQ ID -2212

View

What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?

FAQ ID - 3501

View

What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene?

FAQ ID -2712

View

What does the standard kit contain?

FAQ ID - 3938

View

What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -1137

View

What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?

FAQ ID - 3506

View

What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?

FAQ ID -2288

View

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits?

FAQ ID -1751

View

What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using QIAwave DNA/RNA Kits?

FAQ ID - 3985

View

What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?

FAQ ID -2918

View

What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?

FAQ ID -2889

View

What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?

FAQ ID -2937

View

What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?

FAQ ID -2986

View

What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize?

FAQ ID -170

View

What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?

FAQ ID -1154

View

What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes?

FAQ ID -1312

View

What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software?

FAQ ID -2700

View

What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?

FAQ ID - 3364

View

What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools?

FAQ ID -2219

View

What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?

FAQ ID -3025

View

What happens if I accidentally unscrew the funnel before saliva collection is completed?

3808

View

What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed?

FAQ ID -514

View

What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?

FAQ ID -2963

View

What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?

FAQ ID -2962

View

What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template?

FAQ ID -2009

View

What has to be done to an RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?

FAQ ID -528

View

What if only one heater shaker is available?

FAQ ID - 143764

View

What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA?

FAQ ID -1365

View

What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs?

FAQ ID -1363

View

What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format?

FAQ ID -1463

View

What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?

FAQ ID -2678

View

What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?

FAQ ID -2005

View

What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay?

FAQ ID -476

View

What is a miScript Precursor Assay?

FAQ ID -2214

View

What is a miScript Target Protector?

FAQ ID -2249

View

What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?

FAQ ID -2941

View

What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?

FAQ ID -631

View

What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay?

FAQ ID -1141

View

What is a quenched FRET assay?

FAQ ID -542

View

What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?

FAQ ID -2029

View

What is in the additive in the PAXgene Saliva Collector?

3810

View

What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit?

FAQ ID -2511

View

What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?

FAQ ID -3168

View

What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?

FAQ ID -2815

View

What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?

FAQ ID -2785

View

What is LLOQ?

FAQ ID — 3401

View

What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment?

FAQ ID -2179

View

What is MOI?

FAQ ID -2768

View

What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?

FAQ ID -3178

View

What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits?

FAQ ID -1554

View

What is qPCR?

FAQ ID -2668

View

What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?

FAQ ID -654

View

What is RNA interference (RNAi)?

FAQ ID -2755

View

What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?

FAQ ID -2262

View

What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?

FAQ ID -320

View

What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?

FAQ ID - 3673

View

What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?

FAQ ID - 3523

View

What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?

FAQ ID -3166

View

What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes

FAQ ID - 3486

View

What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?

FAQ ID - 3372

View

What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?

FAQ ID -2010

View

What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?

FAQ ID -769

View

What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -2059

View

What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -2064

View

What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?

153954

View

What is the amount of standard for the different kit?

FAQ ID - 3936

View

What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?

2856

View

What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?

FAQ ID - 3443

View

What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?

FAQ ID - 3578

View

What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?

FAQ ID -3156

View

What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?

FAQ ID - 3904

View

What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3911

View

What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3912

View

What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3924

View

What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?

FAQ ID - 3846

View

What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?

FAQ ID -635

View

What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?

FAQ ID -721

View

What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?

FAQ ID -2374

View

What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?

FAQ ID -388

View

What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -2534

View

What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3045

View

What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?

FAQ ID -3173

View

What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?

FAQ ID -740

View

What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?

FAQ ID -2705

View

What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?

FAQ ID -3179

View

What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?

FAQ ID -601

View

What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?

FAQ ID -1603

View

What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?

FAQ ID -427

View

What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?

FAQ ID -430

View

What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube

FAQ ID - 3631

View

What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?

FAQ ID -782

View

What is the cellular composition of human blood?

FAQ ID -2951

View

What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?

FAQ ID -2693

View

What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?

FAQ ID -2812

View

What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?

FAQ ID -475

View

What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?

FAQ ID - 3429

View

What is the composition of buffer AE?

FAQ ID -730

View

What is the composition of Buffer ALO?

FAQ ID -2805

View

What is the composition of Buffer APL?

FAQ ID -2803

View

What is the composition of Buffer APP?

FAQ ID -2804

View

What is the composition of Buffer B1?

FAQ ID -2944

View

What is the composition of Buffer B2?

FAQ ID -2945

View

What is the composition of Buffer BB?

FAQ ID -2790

View

What is the composition of Buffer EB?

FAQ ID -199

View

What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?

FAQ ID -571

View

What is the composition of Buffer ETR?

FAQ ID -2789

View

What is the composition of Buffer FG3?

FAQ ID -356

View

What is the composition of Buffer FRN?

FAQ ID -2802

View

What is the composition of buffer FWB2?

FAQ ID -417

View

What is the composition of Buffer G2?

FAQ ID -2943

View

What is the composition of Buffer N3?

FAQ ID -767

View

What is the composition of buffer OBB?

FAQ ID -421

View

What is the composition of buffer OCD?

FAQ ID -423

View

What is the composition of buffer OCL?

FAQ ID -422

View

What is the composition of buffer OEB?

FAQ ID -420

View

What is the composition of buffer OL2?

FAQ ID -424

View

What is the composition of buffer OW2?

FAQ ID -419

View

What is the composition of Buffer P2?

FAQ ID -203

View

What is the composition of buffer P3?

FAQ ID -418

View

What is the composition of Buffer PB?

FAQ ID -2791

View

What is the composition of Buffer PE?

FAQ ID -1691

View

What is the composition of Buffer PKD?

FAQ ID -2801

View

What is the composition of buffer QBT?

FAQ ID -411

View

What is the composition of buffer QC?

FAQ ID -412

View

What is the composition of buffer QF?

FAQ ID -413

View

What is the composition of buffer QN?

FAQ ID -414

View

What is the composition of Buffer RDD?

FAQ ID -2800

View

What is the composition of Buffer RLC?

FAQ ID -2795

View

What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?

FAQ ID -2794

View

What is the composition of Buffer RLT?

FAQ ID -2793

View

What is the composition of Buffer RPE?

FAQ ID -2797

View

What is the composition of Buffer RW1?

FAQ ID -2796

View

What is the composition of Buffer RWT?

FAQ ID -2798

View

What is the composition of Buffer S3?

FAQ ID -2788

View

What is the composition of buffer STE?

FAQ ID -415

View

What is the composition of buffer TE?

FAQ ID -416

View

What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?

FAQ ID -2809

View

What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?

FAQ ID -2811

View

What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?

FAQ ID -2813

View

What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?

FAQ ID -1356

View

What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?

FAQ ID - 3387

View

What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?

FAQ ID -1361

View

What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?

FAQ ID -2799

View

What is the composition of PBS?

FAQ ID -361

View

What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?

FAQ ID -2810

View

What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?

FAQ ID - 3355

View

What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?

FAQ ID -2808

View

What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?

FAQ ID - 3437

View

What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?

FAQ ID -606

View

What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?

FAQ ID -289

View

What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?

FAQ ID -522

View

What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?

FAQ ID -2846

View

What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?

FAQ ID - 3708

View

What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?

FAQ ID -3084

View

What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?

FAQ ID -3083

View

What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?

FAQ ID -2370

View

What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -850

View

What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?

FAQ ID - 3984

View

What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?

FAQ ID -2915

View

What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?

FAQ ID - 3719

View

What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?

FAQ ID -1142

View

What is the delta Rn value?

FAQ ID -2681

View

What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?

FAQ ID -2453

View

What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?

FAQ ID -1432

View

What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?

FAQ ID -2144

View

What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?

FAQ ID -2692

View

What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?

FAQ ID -2600

View

What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?

FAQ ID -569

View

What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?

3757

View

What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?

FAQ ID -1043

View

What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?

FAQ ID -139

View

What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?

FAQ ID -3167

View

What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?

FAQ ID -3108

View

What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?

FAQ ID — 3402

View

What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?

FAQ ID -764

View

What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?

FAQ ID — 3397

View

What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?

FAQ ID -2203

View

What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?

FAQ ID -761

View

What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?

FAQ ID -2448

View

What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?

FAQ ID - 3685

View

What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?

FAQ ID -2420

View

What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?

FAQ ID -3174

View

What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?

FAQ ID -275

View

What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?

FAQ ID — 3410

View

What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?

FAQ ID -295

View

What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?

FAQ ID - 3715

View

What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?

FAQ ID -1038

View

What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?

FAQ ID -1206

View

What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?

153895

View

What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?

FAQ ID -2253

View

What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?

FAQ ID - 3444

View

What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?

FAQ ID - 3579

View

What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3047

View

What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?

FAQ ID -1158

View

What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?

FAQ ID -1106

View

What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?

FAQ ID -846

View

What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?

FAQ ID -704

View

What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?

FAQ ID - 3542

View

What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?

FAQ ID - 3554

View

What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID -1048

View

What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?

FAQ ID — 3396

View

What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?

FAQ ID -2544

View

What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?

FAQ ID - 3637

View

What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?

3823

View

What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?

FAQ ID - 3382

View

What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?

3822

View

What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?

FAQ ID -3082

View

What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?

FAQ ID -3081

View

What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?

FAQ ID - 3383

View

What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?

FAQ ID - 3511

View

What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?

FAQ ID - 3496

View

What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?

FAQ ID -632

View

What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID -1739

View

What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?

FAQ ID - 3905

View

What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?

FAQ ID - 3925

View

What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?

FAQ ID -3140

View

What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?

FAQ ID -3019

View

What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?

FAQ ID - 3601

View

What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?

FAQ ID -731

View

What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?

FAQ ID -157

View

What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?

FAQ ID - 3428

View

What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?

3769

View

What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3046

View

What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?

FAQ ID -2656

View

What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?

FAQ ID -2976

View

What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?

FAQ ID -1047

View

What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?

FAQ ID -1752

View

What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?

FAQ ID -690

View

What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?

FAQ ID -2907

View

What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?

FAQ ID -2909

View

What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?

-30

View

What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?

FAQ ID -2560

View

What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?

FAQ ID -307

View

What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1591

View

What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?

FAQ ID -426

View

What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?

FAQ ID -290

View

What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?

FAQ ID -3146

View

What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -2028

View

What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?

-16

View

What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?

FAQ ID - 3665

View

What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?

FAQ ID -2498

View

What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?

FAQ ID -1208

View

What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?

FAQ ID -2998

View

What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?

FAQ ID - 3482

View

What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?

FAQ ID -2145

View

What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?

FAQ ID -2316

View

What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?

FAQ ID -3024

View

What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?

FAQ ID -2518

View

What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?

FAQ ID - 3604

View

What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?

FAQ ID -1616

View

What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3537

View

What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3549

View

What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?

FAQ ID -2841

View

What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2739

View

What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?

148724

View

What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?

FAQ ID -1750

View

What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?

FAQ ID - 3887

View

What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?

3789

View

What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?

FAQ ID -428

View

What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?

FAQ ID -432

View

What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?

FAQ ID - 3696

View

What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?

FAQ ID -3029

View

What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?

FAQ ID -2109

View

What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?

FAQ ID - 3519

View

What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?

FAQ ID - 3516

View

What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?

FAQ ID -3076

View

What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?

FAQ ID -1468

View

What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?

FAQ ID -1852

View

What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?

FAQ ID -3171

View

What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?

FAQ ID -2777

View

What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?

FAQ ID -2974

View

What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?

FAQ ID - 3366

View

What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?

FAQ ID -2543

View

What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?

FAQ ID -2450

View

What is the new Waste Tube made of?

FAQ ID - 3987

View

What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?

FAQ ID -2646

View

What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?

FAQ ID -2247

View

What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?

FAQ ID - 3840

View

What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?

FAQ ID -338

View

What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?

FAQ ID -3055

View

What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?

FAQ ID -2486

View

What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3618

View

What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3051

View

What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?

FAQ ID - 3886

View

What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?

FAQ ID -1290

View

What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?

FAQ ID - 3527

View

What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?

FAQ ID - 3525

View

What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?

FAQ ID - 3935

View

What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?

FAQ ID -184

View

What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?

FAQ ID -2003

View

What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?

FAQ ID -2916

View

What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?

FAQ ID -1753

View

What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?

FAQ ID -2237

View

What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?

FAQ ID - 3470

View

What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?

FAQ ID -870

View

What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?

FAQ ID -1090

View

What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?

FAQ ID -1201

View

What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?

FAQ ID -2533

View

What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?

FAQ ID -2671

View

What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?

FAQ ID -2007

View

What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?

FAQ ID -2868

View

What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?

FAQ ID -2864

View

What is the QIAxcel Connect System?

FAQ ID - 3859

View

What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

View

What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?

FAQ ID -2456

View

What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?

FAQ ID -1908

View

What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?

FAQ ID -1079

View

What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?

FAQ ID - 3632

View

What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?

FAQ ID -2879

View

What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?

FAQ ID -2875

View

What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?

FAQ ID -2881

View

What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?

FAQ ID -1030

View

What is the recipe for 2x YT?

FAQ ID -213

View

What is the recipe for LB?

FAQ ID -212

View

What is the recipe for SOC medium?

FAQ ID -798

View

What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?

FAQ ID -2716

View

What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?

FAQ ID -2825

View

What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?

FAQ ID -154

View

What is the recommended HpaII concentration?

FAQ ID - 3976

View

What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?

FAQ ID -647

View

What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?

FAQ ID - 3565

View

What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3668

View

What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?

FAQ ID - 3446

View

What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?

FAQ ID -1756

View

What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?

FAQ ID -2659

View

What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?

FAQ ID -2199

View

What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?

FAQ ID -1034

View

What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?

FAQ ID -3172

View

What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?

FAQ ID -198

View

What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -2538

View

What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID - 3514

View

What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?

FAQ ID -3050

View

What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?

FAQ ID -2718

View

What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?

FAQ ID -622

View

What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3557

View

What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3545

View

What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?

FAQ ID -2215

View

What is the SBTengine® software?

FAQ ID -2628

View

What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?

3765

View

What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?

FAQ ID — 3409

View

What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?

FAQ ID -2840

View

What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2910

View

What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?

FAQ ID - 3561

View

What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?

FAQ ID -2994

View

What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?

FAQ ID - 3671

View

What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?

FAQ ID - 3672

View

What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?

FAQ ID - 3835

View

What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?

FAQ ID - 3374

View

What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?

FAQ ID - 3488

View

What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?

FAQ ID - 3651

View

What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?

FAQ ID - 3633

View

What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?

3811

View

What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?

FAQ ID - 3447

View

What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?

FAQ ID -651

View

What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?

FAQ ID - 3890

View

What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?

FAQ ID -1743

View

What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?

FAQ ID -470

View

What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?

FAQ ID -142

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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?

FAQ ID -1245

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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?

FAQ ID -148

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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?

FAQ ID -663

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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?

FAQ ID -1218

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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?

FAQ ID -485

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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?

FAQ ID -3169

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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?

FAQ ID -3109

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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?

FAQ ID -693

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What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?

FAQ ID - 3920

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What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?

FAQ ID - 3602

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What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?

FAQ ID -330

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What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?

FAQ ID -2691

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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?

FAQ ID -3104

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What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?

FAQ ID -2956

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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?

FAQ ID - 3964

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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?

FAQ ID - 3842

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What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?

FAQ ID -2898

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What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?

FAQ ID -2158

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What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?

FAQ ID -3056

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What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?

FAQ ID -3057

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What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?

FAQ ID -2682

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What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?

FAQ ID -1985

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What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?

FAQ ID -2254

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What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?

FAQ ID -2552

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What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?

FAQ ID -873

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What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?

FAQ ID -1738

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What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?

FAQ ID -2855

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What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?

FAQ ID -1067

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What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?

3784

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What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?

FAQ ID -352

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What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?

FAQ ID -530

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What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?

FAQ ID -1055

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What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?

FAQ ID -2220

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What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?

FAQ ID -2441

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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?

FAQ ID -1983

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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?

FAQ ID -1986

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What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?

FAQ ID -165

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What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?

FAQ ID -2216

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What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?

FAQ ID -2553

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What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?

FAQ ID -2034

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What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?

FAQ ID -2837

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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3536

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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?

FAQ ID - 3548

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What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?

FAQ ID -1120

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What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?

FAQ ID -304

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What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?

FAQ ID -147912

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What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?

FAQ ID -1821

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What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?

FAQ ID -566

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What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?

FAQ ID -2292

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What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?

FAQ ID - 3667

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What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?

FAQ ID -2920

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What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?

FAQ ID - 3698

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What MOI should I use for my cells?

FAQ ID -2770

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What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?

FAQ ID -779

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What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?

FAQ ID -2672

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What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2922

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What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?

FAQ ID - 3963

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What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?

FAQ ID - 3841

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What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?

FAQ ID -2917

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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?

FAQ ID - 3250

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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?

FAQ ID -2381

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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?

FAQ ID - 3251

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What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?

FAQ ID -2673

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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?

FAQ ID -3137

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What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?

FAQ ID -1584

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What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?

FAQ ID -2886

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What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?

FAQ ID -831

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What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?

FAQ ID -815

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What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

FAQ ID -371

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What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays

FAQ ID — 3422

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What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?

FAQ ID -1292

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What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?

FAQ ID -1436

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What quenchers are used?

FAQ ID - 3865

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What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?

FAQ ID -551

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What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?

FAQ ID -2670

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What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?

FAQ ID - 3939

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What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?

2857

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What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?

FAQ ID -1943

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What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?

FAQ ID -147914

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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?

FAQ ID - 3464

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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?

FAQ ID -2506

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What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?

FAQ ID -147910

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