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What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
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What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
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What sample volume is suitable for use in the QIAquant?
153921
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What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
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What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
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What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
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What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
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What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
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What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
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What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
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What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
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What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
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What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
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What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
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What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
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What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
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What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
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What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
2857
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What region is targeted in the QIAcuity E. coli resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3939
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What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
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What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
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What quenchers are used?
FAQ ID - 3865
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What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
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What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
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What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
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What QIAGEN kit can I use to isolate DNA from food products to test for genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
FAQ ID -371
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What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
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What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
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What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
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What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
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What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
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What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
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What PCR enzymes can be used following the first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3841
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What PCR enzymes can be used following first-strand synthesis?
FAQ ID - 3963
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What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
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What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
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What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
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What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
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What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
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What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
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What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
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What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
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What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
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What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
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What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
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What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
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What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
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What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
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What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
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What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
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What kind of reading length can I expect when using pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
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What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
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What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
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What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
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What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
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What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
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What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
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What is the VPF (Volume Precision Factor)?
3784
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What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
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What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
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What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
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What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
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What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
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What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
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What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
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What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
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What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
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What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
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What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
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What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (>5 kb)?
FAQ ID - 3842
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What is the suggested protocol for generating long, full-length cDNA transcripts (> 5 kB)?
FAQ ID - 3964
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What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
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What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
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What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
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What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
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What is the stability of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase at room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3920
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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
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What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
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What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
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What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
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What is the shelf-life of the Neo Assay Kit?
FAQ ID - 3890
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What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
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What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Saliva Collectors?
3811
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
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What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
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What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
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What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
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What is the sequence of the UDI 5' Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3835
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
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What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
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What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
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What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
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What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
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What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
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What is the scope of a regular maintenance of the QIAcuity?
3765
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What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
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What is the sample throughput of pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
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What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
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What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3557
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What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
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What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
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What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
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What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
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What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
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What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
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What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
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What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3565
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What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -647
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What is the recommended HpaII concentration?
FAQ ID - 3976
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What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
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What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
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What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
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What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
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What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
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What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
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What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
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What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
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What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
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What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
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What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
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What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the QIAxcel Connect System?
FAQ ID - 3859
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What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
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What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
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What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
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What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
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What is the purpose of the reference channel in QIAcuity?
3776
View
What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
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What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
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What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
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What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
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What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
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What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
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What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
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What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
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What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
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What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
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What is the preferred storage temperature for reconstituted assay for the QIAcuity HEK293 resDNA Quant Kit (96)?
FAQ ID - 3935
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
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What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
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What is the percentage of false negative results that QIAGEN obtained during validations?
FAQ ID - 3886
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
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What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
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What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
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What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
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What is the optimal reaction temperature for EnzScript M-MLV Reverse Transcriptase RNase H-?
FAQ ID - 3840
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What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
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What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
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What is the new Waste Tube made of?
FAQ ID - 3987
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What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
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What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
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What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
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What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
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What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
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What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
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What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
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What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
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What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
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What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
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What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
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What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
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What is the minimum cell number needed for cell lysis?
3789
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What is the minimum and maximum concentration of effective RNA for the test?
FAQ ID - 3887
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the DNA/mRNA Nano Kit?
148724
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What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
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What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
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What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
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What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
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What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
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What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
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What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
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What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
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What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
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What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
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What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
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What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
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What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
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What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
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What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
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What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
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What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
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What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
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What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
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What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
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What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
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What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
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What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
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What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
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What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
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What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
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What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
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What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
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What is the input volume for QIAcuity Nanoplate well?
3782
View
What is the impact of not applying the latest VPF? Can I reanalyze previously obtained results after installing the latest VPF?
3769
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What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
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What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
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What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
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What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
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What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
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What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
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What is the fidelity/error rate of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3925
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What is the fidelity/error rate of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3905
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What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
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What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
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What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
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What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
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What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3383
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
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What is the expected DNA yield per milliliter saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3822
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What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3382
View
What is the expected DNA purity from saliva collected and stabilized with the PAXgene Saliva Collector?
3823
View
What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
View
What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
View
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
View
What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
View
What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
View
What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
View
What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
View
What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
View
What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
View
What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
View
What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
View
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
View
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
View
What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
View
What is the difference of buffer FTB versus Buffer ATL?
153895
View
What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
View
What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
View
What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
View
What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
View
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
View
What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
View
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
View
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
View
What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
View
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
View
What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
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What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
View
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
View
What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
View
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
View
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
View
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
View
What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
View
What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
View
What is the difference between Buffer FTB and Buffer ATL?
3757
View
What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
View
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
View
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
View
What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
View
What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
View
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
View
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
View
What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
View
What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
View
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
View
What is the concentration range for RNA Integrity Score analysis when using the QIAxcel RNA High Sensitivity Kit?
FAQ ID - 3984
View
What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
View
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
View
What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
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What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
View
What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
View
What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
View
What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
View
What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
View
What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
View
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
View
What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
View
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
View
What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
View
What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
View
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
View
What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?
FAQ ID -1361
View
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
View
What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1356
View
What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
View
What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
View
What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
View
What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
View
What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
View
What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
View
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
View
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
View
What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
View
What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
View
What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
View
What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
View
What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
View
What is the composition of buffer QN?
FAQ ID -414
View
What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
View
What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
View
What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
View
What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
View
What is the composition of Buffer PE?
FAQ ID -1691
View
What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
View
What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
View
What is the composition of Buffer P2?
FAQ ID -203
View
What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
View
What is the composition of buffer OL2?
FAQ ID -424
View
What is the composition of buffer OEB?
FAQ ID -420
View
What is the composition of buffer OCL?
FAQ ID -422
View
What is the composition of buffer OCD?
FAQ ID -423
View
What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
View
What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
View
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
View
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
View
What is the composition of Buffer FRN?
FAQ ID -2802
View
What is the composition of Buffer FG3?
FAQ ID -356
View
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
View
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
View
What is the composition of Buffer EB?
FAQ ID -199
View
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
View
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
View
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
View
What is the composition of Buffer APP?
FAQ ID -2804
View
What is the composition of Buffer APL?
FAQ ID -2803
View
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
View
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
View
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
View
What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?
FAQ ID -475
View
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
View
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
View
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
View
What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -782
View
What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube
FAQ ID - 3631
View
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?
FAQ ID -430
View
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?
FAQ ID -427
View
What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?
FAQ ID -1603
View
What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?
FAQ ID -601
View
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
View
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
View
What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?
FAQ ID -740
View
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
View
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2534
View
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3045
View
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
View
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
View
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
View
What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?
FAQ ID -635
View
What is the average amount of cfDNA present in 1 ml plasma?
FAQ ID - 3846
View
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq ULtra DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3924
View
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3911
View
What is the amplification length limit of VeraSeq 2.0 DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID - 3912
View
What is the amplification length limit of Phoenix Hot Start Taq?
FAQ ID - 3904
View
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
View
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3578
View
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
View
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
2856
View
What is the amount of standard for the different kit?
FAQ ID - 3936
View
What is the algorithm behind data normalization in the QIAquant Software?
153954
View
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2064
View
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2059
View
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
View
What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?
FAQ ID -2010
View
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3372
View
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
View
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
View
What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3523
View
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
View
What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?
FAQ ID -320
View
What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
View
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
View
What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?
FAQ ID -654
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