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Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
3261 - Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
3258 - Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3260 - Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
3259 - Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3296-Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
3249 - What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
3252 - What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3256 - Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
3253 - What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
3257 - Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
Can the insertions in Exon 20 be detected with the therascreen EGFR Pyro Kit?
Can the insertions in Exon 20 be detected with the EGFR Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID - 3279
3277 - Can I use the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit for all types of tissue?
Can QuantiFast Probe Assays be ordered offline via e-mail or fax?
FAQ ID - 3278
3283-Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
3285-How are the genes in each iPSC qBiomarker PCR Array selected?
3284-For which applications can the RNA isolated with the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit also be used?
Can the QuantiFast Probe Assay detect short fragmented RNA as well as longer fragments of RNA?
Do the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kits contain both wash buffers, RW1 and RWT?
FAQ ID - 3282
3270 - Are the primer sets different for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit and ESSplex SE where the loci are the same?
Are the QuantiFast Probe Assays hydrolysis or FRET probes?
FAQ ID - 3271
Are panels and bin sets available for use with GeneMapper ID and GeneMapper ID-X?
FAQ ID - 3267
3275 - Can I use more than 10ng DNA for the PCR reaction for my therascreen Pyro Kits?
Can I use more than 10ng DNA for the PCR reaction for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3276
3274 - Can I do singleplex PCR with the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3273 - At what temperature can I perform the experiment with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
3272 - Are the QuantiFast Probe Assays wet-lab validated?
3222 - How much DNA/RNA can be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3218 - How many fragments are contained within the size standard BTO in the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3219 - How many freeze-thaw cycles can the master mix contained in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit tolerate?
3220 - How many PCR cycles should I use for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3226 - How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit be?
3223 - How much sample material can I use for DNA/RNA purification with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3224 - How much time can be saved when using the RNeasy Mini QIAcube Kit?
3289-How does the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination?
3290-How do I analyze the data for the particular iPSC qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
3288-How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work?
3294-How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit?
3286-How can I adjust the ROX concentration in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus master mix?
3291-How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3246 - What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3297-Why does the PCR for HLA-DRB4 result in 2 amplicons of different size?
3266 - Why are two different exon 2 forward sequencing primers used for the SBTexcellerator HLA-DRB1 Kit?
How can I find out if my gene of interest is expressed in a specific tissue type or cell line?
FAQ ID - 3214
3215 - What is the starting material for SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
Can I use genomic DNA from fixed samples with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3416
Can I use amplified genomic DNA with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3415
Do the samples require pretreatment before starting the manual protocol or before loading onto the QIAcube instrument?
FAQ ID - 3479
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with PAXgene miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3480
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at 4°C?
FAQ ID - 3493
How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3495
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be frozen? If yes, at what temperatures and for how long?
FAQ ID - 3491
Can mitochondrial DNA be isolated with the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3498
3497 - What is the expected purity and size of DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3497
Does the DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA System contain RNA?
FAQ ID - 3499
Can I multiplex the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3408
Can I measure virulence factor gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3405
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
Are the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays wet-lab verified?
FAQ ID — 3406
Can I measure antibiotic resistance gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3404
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
Are the assays species-specific?
FAQ ID — 3400
Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment?
FAQ ID — 3421
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array?
FAQ ID — 3417
How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay?
FAQ ID — 3418
How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays?
FAQ ID — 3420
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3477
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
As part of my RT procedure I routinely heat an aliquot of the eluate prior to the RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the whole eluate after the RNA preparation?
FAQ ID - 3468
Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?
FAQ ID - 3460
I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license?
FAQ ID - 3472
Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q24 software on my new computer or following an operating system upgrade, or do I need to purchase a new license?

FAQ ID - 3473

Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at higher temperatures?
FAQ ID - 3494
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3476
2. Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes CE (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3485
Are the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes sterile?
FAQ ID - 3487
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
Do I have to use a blood collection set with the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3484
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3483
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped?
FAQ ID - 3489
How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3492
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored?
FAQ ID - 3490
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify piRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3432
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify piRNA expression?

FAQ ID - 3434

Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify animal miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3433
Does the miScript Plant RT Kit contain controls?
FAQ ID - 3435
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
Are any of the miScript II RT Kit components interchangeable with the miScript Plant RT Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3436
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
Are miScript Primer Assays available for plant mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3439
Are plant miScript Primer Assay designs wet-bench validated?
FAQ ID - 3440
Can you describe the adaptor found in the 10x miScript Plant Adaptor?
FAQ ID - 3442
Are miScript Primer Assay included in miScript miRNA PCR Arrays the same primers as the miScript Primer Assays available in individual tubes?
FAQ ID - 3441

 

What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
Can cDNA synthesized with the miScript Plant RT Kit be used in real-time PCR with TaqMan® MicroRNA Assays?
FAQ ID - 3445
Can the PAXgene RNA stabilization solution/blood mixture from the PAXgene Blood RNA Tube be disposed of by adding bleach?
FAQ ID - 3469
Can I scale up reagents if I want to use more sample with the MagAttract HMW DNA Kit (cat. no. 67563)?
FAQ ID - 3448
How can I calculate the number of bacterial cells that are present in a sample using the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3411
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
Can the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID - 3471
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C?
FAQ ID - 3463
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate DNA?
FAQ ID - 3466
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate viral RNA?
FAQ ID - 3465
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used with animal blood samples?
FAQ ID - 3461
Can I use DNA isolated from an AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3425
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2983
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
Do you need to pre-treat food samples before DNA isolation using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2957
Do the samples require pretreatment before loading onto the instrument with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2982
How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays?
FAQ ID -2913
Do the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids contain inducible promoters?
FAQ ID -2904
How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate?
FAQ ID -2975
How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2911
How can I estimate the size of my protein based on the length of the respective cDNA?
FAQ ID -2952
How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2923
Can I use the Type-it CNV kits and Reference Assays for CNV studis in mice?
FAQ ID -2997
Can the Certal CHO Positive Control DNA be used to create a qPCR standard for relative quantification?
FAQ ID -2979
Can I use lysates or tissue homogenates with the ELISArray kits?
FAQ ID -2905
Can the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit be used to express entire IgGs?
FAQ ID -2966
Can I use TaqMan® Copy Number Assays from LIFE Technologies in combination with the Type-it CNV Probe kit?
FAQ ID -2999
Can I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with primary cells or macrophages or for injection into live animals?
FAQ ID -2902
Do I have to use an internal control with each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kit protocol run?
FAQ ID -2932
Do samples require pretreatment before they are loaded onto the QIAsymphony instrument?
FAQ ID -2931
Can the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen system be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2939
Do the ELISArray Kits work on species other than human, mouse or rat?
FAQ ID -2906
Does the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit contain an extraction control?
FAQ ID -2961
Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2996
Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits?
FAQ ID -2969
Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2959
Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit?
FAQ ID -2972
Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2995
On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?
FAQ ID -2978
On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?
FAQ ID -2973
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?
FAQ ID -2900
Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2968
Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2960
How much DNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2947
How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2935
How many reactions can be performed with one QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2955
How should the samples be stored before purification of RNA with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2984
How should the samples be stored before purification with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2934
If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed?
FAQ ID -2977
How much sample is required for each well for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2908
How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2927
3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins?
3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column?
Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?
FAQ ID -3116
Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?
FAQ ID -3124
Can I use the QIAGEN deparaffinization solution with the IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3100
Can I use stained slide materials with IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3101
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3105
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits?
FAQ ID -3113
Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
Does QIAGEN provide template files for GeneMapper® 5 software?
FAQ ID -3177
Can Rotor-Gene Reports be modified?
FAQ ID -3184
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
Aside from the OTV test, what other maintenance should be done for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3181
Are the miRNA Target Protector & miRNA mimic bench tested? Any guarantee?
FAQ ID - 3186
3187 - Why does the Ni-NTA resin turn reddish-brown after mixing with the lysates?
3191 - Is the Allprep DNA Mini Spin Column the same as the gDNA eliminator column? Can I interchange these columns?
3199 - Which species can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3192 - Is QIAGEN Protease compatible with Buffer ATL?
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
3193 - Where can I get an RNase-free syringe that is recommended for reconstituting QIAGEN's RNase-free DNase (cat. no. 79254)?
Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
How can I know whether there is any genomic DNA present in my purified plasmid?
FAQ ID -3134
How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected?
FAQ ID -3135
Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?
FAQ ID -3139
Has QIAGEN ever tested Proteinase K treatment for a time period longer than overnight?
Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?
FAQ ID -3143
Does RNAprotect affect morphology of tissues?
FAQ ID -3142
Are miScript primer assays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -3145
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
Does RNase-free DNase I affect the isolation of dsRNA?
FAQ ID -3153
Can single-stranded DNA be removed by gDNA Eliminator columns?
FAQ ID -3152
How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -3154
Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?
FAQ ID -3155
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?
FAQ ID -3138
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
How long can I store an RLT lysate?
FAQ ID -3115
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from yeast/fungi directly from Blood?
FAQ ID -3150
Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3185
3197 -Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator HDplex kit?
Can QIAzol aqueous phase be used with the gDNA eliminator columns in RNeasy Plus mini kit?
FAQ ID -3151
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2652
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
For the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC kit, does the Internal Control also control for the reverse transcription reaction?
FAQ ID -2601
Do we have data on long term stability and storage of DNA purified on BioRobot M48?
FAQ ID -2611
Following thermal cycling, reaction volume has evaporated from some of the wells of my qPCR assay plate. What should I do?
FAQ ID -2683
How can I predict the percent qPCR signal due to contaminating DNA, for a given qPCR assay, and its matching NRT control?
FAQ ID -2688
How can I ensure that reaction volume is not lost due to evaporation during thermal cycling?
FAQ ID -2679
How can I determine whether amplification occurs from mRNA-derived cDNA or from genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -2687
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